When an object levitates, the magnetic force causes the object to repel. Without this magnetic force, ________ would pull the object down. ​

Answer:

ω = 0.05 rad/s

Explanation:

In order to produce the acceleration equal to the acceleration due to gravity at the surface of Earth, the centripetal acceleration must be equal to the value  of g:

[tex]a_c = g\\g = \frac{v^2}{r}\\\\but,\ v=r\omega\\therefore,\\\\g = \omega^2r\\\\\omega = \sqrt{\frac{g}{r}}[/tex]

where,

ω = angular speed = ?

g = acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the Earth = 9.81 m/s²

r = radius of cylinder = 8 km/2 = 4 km = 4000 m

Therefore,

[tex]\omega = \sqrt{\frac{9.81\ m/s^2}{4000\ m}}[/tex]

ω = 0.05 rad/s

Answer:

The correct answer is -

B. The velocity would double (v = 2v).

C. The wavelength would be half (λ = λ/2).

Explanation:

A wave has a speed or velocity that is related to the wavelength of the wave and the frequency of the wave and this relationship can be represented by the following equation-

Wave velocity V = Wavelength (λ) * Frequency (f)

Frequency (f) = Velocity (V) / Wavelength(λ).

The frequency and wavelength are inversely proportional and frequency and velocity are directly proportional to each other.

So, if f = 2f then,

putting value in the formula,

2f = 2v/λ, which means, f = 2v and f = λ/2

when the frequency is doubled, the wavelength will be halved and velocity will be doubled.

Answer:

Explanation:

Density = Mass / Volume = 850 / 40*10*5 = 0.425 g /cm^3

Answer:

Explanation:

A chemical change.

Usually those are irreversible. Or they may be reversible, but the form they take may leave your object not the same as they started out.

A physical change might be just as deadly. If the object melted like a chocolate Easter Bunny then the object would be irreversible as well. Take a better example.

Suppose you are talking about a Gold Coin. If you heated it so it melted, the gold would retain its value, but the fact that it is a coin and valuable as such, means that it has lost that part of its value.

I really don't know. My instincts tell me that the chemical change is more dangerous, but I can't rule out the other choice..

Answer:

D

Explanation:

Answer: A. Ar

Explanation: not anything else besides Ar

Answer:

Explanation:

Potential energy of the system of charges

=  9 x 10⁹ x [  q₁q₂ / r₁₂ +  q₂q₃ / r₂₃ +  q₁q₃ / r₁₃ ]

here  r₁₂ ,  r₂₃ , r₁₃ are distance between 1 st and 2 nd charge , 2 nd and 3 rd charge and fist and third charge.

r₁₂ = 8 cm , r₂₃ = 4 cm , r₁₃ = 4 cm.

q₁ = 20 x 10⁻⁹ C , q₂ = - 20 x 10⁻⁹ C , q₃ = 10 x 10⁻⁹ C

Potential energy  =  9 x 10⁹ x [ - 400 x 10⁻¹⁸ / .08  +  -200x10⁻¹⁸ / .04 +  200 x 10¹⁸ / .04 ]

= 9 x 10⁹  x  - 400 x 10⁻¹⁸ / .08

= 45 x 10⁻⁶ J .

b)

Potential at the point of fourth charge due to three charges of 20 nC , - 20 nC and 10 nC at the centre

9 x 10⁹ [ 20 x 10⁻⁹ / .05 + - 20 x 10⁻⁹ / .05 + 10 x 10⁻⁹ / .03 ]

= 9 x 10⁹ x 10 x 10⁻⁹ / .03

= 3000 V .

potential energy of fourth particle = charge x potential

= 3000 x 40 x 10⁻⁹ = 12 x 10⁻⁵ J .

kinetic energy at infinity = 12 x 10⁻⁵ J

1/2 m v² = 12 x 10⁻⁵ J

.5 x 2 x 10⁻¹³ x v² = 12 x 10⁻⁵

v² = 12 x 10⁸

v = 3.46 x 10⁴ m/s

= 9 x 10⁹

Answer:

upward

Explanation:

In the electromagnetic system of force if the direction of motion of proton does not changes it means that the electric and magnetic forces are such a ways that they are cancelling each other's effect.

Since, electric field lines will exert a force on the proton to the west, hence, the magnetic force must force it to the east. It is well known that magnetic force acts perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field.  magnetic field should point upward direction.

Answer:

P = 756.84 Watts

Explanation:

As the tension is stationary or innitial, T₀ = 31 N, the mean would be:

T₁ + T₂ / 2 = T₀    (1)

T₁ + T₂ = 2 * 31 = 62 N

Now, with the following expression we can determine the linear speed:

V = πWD  (2)

W: angular speed of the wheel  (rev/s)

D: diameter of the wheel (in meters)

W = 1547 rev/min * (1 min/60 s) = 25.78 rev/s

V = π * 25.78 * 0.379 = 30.695 m/s

We also know that:

T₁ / T₂ = exp (μθ)

T₁ = T₂ exp(μθ)   (3)

We already have those values so replacing:

T₁ = T₂ exp(0.3 * 161 * π/180)

T₁ = 2.32T₂   (4)

We can now replace (4) in (1) like this:

T₁ + T₂ = 62 N

2.32T₂ + T₂ = 62

3.32T₂ = 62

T₂ = 18.67 N

Which means that T₁:

T₁ = 2.32(18.67)

T₁ = 43.33 N

Finally, the power can be determined using the following expression:

P = (T₁ - T₂)V  (5)       Replacing we have:

P = (43.33 - 18.67)*30.695

Hope this helps

Answer: When a ray of light approaches a smooth polished surface and the light ray bounces back, it is called the reflection of light. The incident light ray which lands upon the surface is said to be reflected off the surface. The ray that bounces back is called the reflected ray.

Have a great day and stay safe !

Answer:

 y_lower = 0.915 m,   y_superior = 1,905 m

Explanation:

In this exercise we use the law of reflection for a flat mirror.

         θ’= θ

To see the feet of the person a ray of light that part of them must reach the bottom of the mirror and its reflection has to reach the eyes.

As the law of reflection the incident and reflected angles are equal, the distance from the floor to the point where the two rays (incident and reflected) touch the mirror must be symmetrical, oses from the floor

           y = 1.83 / 2

           y = 0.915 m

To see the head, a ray of light that comes from the tip of the head and is reflected in the mirror must reach the eyes. As the head is 0.15 m above the eyes and the incident and reflected rays have the same angle, the mirror must be at half the height, that is, the mirror is 0.075 m below the tip of the head.

In summary

* the bottom of the mirror is 0.915 m from the ground

* the top of the mirror is at 1.83 + 0.075

                 y_superior = 1,905 m

ground

Answer:

Gy = 3.14x10⁻⁴ Gy

Explanation:

To get the dose in Gy we need to use the following expression:

Gy = E / m  (1)

Where:

Gy: dose

E: energy absorbed per atom

m: mass of the human body.

We don't have the energy per atom, but we can calculate that by following the next procedure.

First, let's determine the number of atoms of potassium in our body. For that we need to determine the moles in the 140 g of potassium, with the molecular mass and then, use the avogadro's number:

moles = m/MM

moles = 140 / 39.1 = 3.58 moles

N° atoms = 3.58 * 6.02x10²³ atoms = 2.16x10²⁴ atoms of K.

The abundance of the ⁴⁰K is 0.012% so the atoms of this isotope would be:

N = 2.16x10²⁴ * (0.012/100) = 2.59x10²⁰ atoms of ⁴⁰K.

With this number, and the half life rate, we can determine the number of decay atoms in a year (λ) using the following expression:

λ = ln2 / t(1/2)

λ = ln2 / 1.3x10⁹ = 5.33x10⁻¹⁰ year⁻¹

This number, multiplied by the number of atoms:

R = 5.33x10⁻¹⁰ * 2.59x10²⁰ = 1.38x10¹¹ atoms/year

Now, each atom of K gives an average energy of 1 MeV, so with the atoms we have:

E = 1.38x10¹¹ * 1x10⁶ eV = 1.38x10¹⁷ eV

This value can be expressed in Joules so:

E = 1.38x10¹⁷ eV * (1 J / 6.24x10¹⁸ eV) = 0.022 J

Finally, we can use (1) to get the dose in Gy:

Gy = 0.022 / 70

Hope this helps

Answer:

i have no idea i came here to find out too :(

Explanation:

Answer:

D

Explanation:

D ok ok ok ok bye

The correct statement is that the alcohol has lower boiling point than water. The correct option is B.

At the boiling point, the pressure exerted by the surroundings on a liquid equals the pressure exerted by the liquid's vapor, under this condition, adding heat outcomes in the transformation of the liquid into its vapor without raising the temperature.

The boiling point of alcohol is low. Because there is less hydrogen bonding between ethanol molecules than between water molecules.

The ethanol requires less energy to vaporize than water, and water has a higher boiling point than ethanol.

The boiling point of a liquid can be known by utilizing the capillary method, that encompasses placing an inverted capillary in the liquid of interest as well as heating it.

Thus, the correct option is B.

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Answer:

Solution given:

Radius of small sphere[r]=5cm=0.05m

Radius of large sphere[R]=10cm=0.1m

capacitance of small sphere[c]=4πε0r

=[tex]4π*8.85×10^{-12}×0.05=5.56*10^{-12}F[/tex]

Charge for small sphere[Q1]=100C

Charge for small sphere[Q2]=50C

Potential difference [V1]=[tex] \frac{charge}{capacitance}=\frac{100}{5.56*10^{-12}}=1.8×10^{13}[/tex]V

.

again

capacitance of small sphere[C]=4πε0R

=[tex]4π*8.85×10^{-12}×0.1=1.11*10^{-11}F[/tex]

Potential difference [V2]=[tex] \frac{charge}{capacitance}=\frac{50}{1.11*10^{-11}}=4.5×10^{12}[/tex]V

Now

Loss of energy:

[tex] \frac{cC(V1-V2)^{2}}{2(c+C)}[/tex]

=[tex] \frac{5.56*10^{-12}*1.11*10^{-11}(1.8*10^{13}-4.5*10^{12})^{2}}{2(5.56*10^{-12}+1.11*10^{-11})}[/tex]

=25Joule

Answer:

f = 4.67 cm

Explanation:

Here, we can use the thin lens formula, as follows:

[tex]\frac{1}{f}= \frac{1}{p}+ \frac{1}{q}\\\\[/tex]

where,

f = focal length of lens = ?

p = distance of object from lens = 12.4 cm

q = distance of image from lens = 7.5 cm

Therefore,

[tex]\frac{1}{f} =\frac{1}{12.4\ cm} +\frac{1}{7.5\ cm}\\\\\frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{4.67\ cm}[/tex]

f = 4.67 cm

Answer:

In fission, energy is gained by splitting apart heavy atoms, for example uranium, into smaller atoms such as iodine, caesium, strontium, xenon and barium, to name just a few. However, fusion is combining light atoms, for example two hydrogen isotopes, deuterium and tritium, to form the heavier helium.

Explanation:

I hope this helped you

(Sorry If it didn't)

Explanation:

Potential energy=MGH

100=3×10×H.

H=100/30

H=3.40m

Answer:

force on the electron is upwards

Explanation:

The magnetic force is given by the relation

        F = q v x B

the bold indicates vectors, we can write the module of this expression

        F = q v  B sin θ

the direction of the force is given by the right hand rule.

If we have a positive charge, the flea points in the direction of velocity, in this case towards the inside of the page.

fingers extended in the direction of the magnetite field, in our case to the right and

the palm gives the direction of the force for a positive charge, for a negative charge it is in the opposite direction. The palm points downwards, so the force on the electron is upwards

Answer:

A)    q₂ = 75.98 cm, B)     q₂' = 115.38 cm, C)

Explanation:

A) This is an exercise in geometric optics, as the two lenses are separated by a greater distance than their focal lengths from each lens, they must be worked as independent lenses.

Lens 1. More to the left

let's use the constructor equation

         [tex]\frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{p} + \frac{1}{q}[/tex]

where f is the focal length, p and q are the distance to the object and the image, respectively,

We must assume a distance to the object to perform the calculation, suppose that the object is 50 cm from lens 1 that is further to the left of the system.

          [tex]\frac{1}{q_1} = \frac{1}{f} - \frac{1}{p}[/tex]

         [tex]\frac{1}{q_1} = \frac{1}{14.8} - \frac{1}{50}[/tex]  

          1 / q₁ = 0.04756

           q₁ = 21.0227 cm

this image is the object for the second lens that has f₂ = 14.8 cm

the distance must be measured from the second lens

          p₂ = 39.4 -q₁

          p₂ = 39.4 -21.0227

          p₂ = 18.38 cm

let's use the constructor equation

            1 / q₂ = 1 / f - 1 / p2

             [tex]\frac{1}{q_2} = \frac{1}{14.8} - \frac{1}{18.38}[/tex]

            [tex]\frac{1}{q_2}[/tex] = 0.01316

            q₂ = 75.98 cm

measured from the second lens

B) the position of the final image with respect to the first lens is

            q₂’= q₂ + 39.4

             q₂'= 75.98 +39.4

              q₂' = 115.38 cm

C) the magnification of a lens is

              m = - q / p

in this case the image measured from lens 2 is q2 = 75.98 cm

the distance to the object from the first lens is p1 = 50cm

          m = - 75.98 / 50

          m = -1.5 X

the negative sign indicates that the image is inverted

B. The energy transformation that is correct is From C to D, kinetic energy is transformed into gravitational potential energy.

The law of conservation of energy states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed but can be transformed from one form to another.

Energy transformation in the pendulum;

Thus, the energy transformation that is correct is From C to D, kinetic energy is transformed into gravitational potential energy.

option B is the correct answer.

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Answer:

B is Correct

Explanation:

From C to D, kinetic energy is transformed into gravitational potential energy.

Answer:

5.0-5.5 is the answer to your question

Answer:

C

Explanation:

edge 2020... Using elimination it's the only one that makes sense.

The statement third "an increase in the distance between the objects causes a greater change in the gravitational force than the same increase in mass" is correct.

The gravitational force is a force that attracts all mass-bearing objects. The gravitational force is referred to as attractive because it always strives to pull masses together rather than pushing them apart.

As we know, the gravitational force is given by:

[tex]\rm F = \dfrac{Gm_1m_2}{r^2}[/tex]

Where, G is the gravitational constant.

m1 and m2 are masses.

r is the distance between the masses.

From the data given in the table, shows that:

The gravitational force is indirectly proportional to the square of the distance.

Thus, the statement third "an increase in the distance between the objects causes a greater change in the gravitational force than the same increase in mass" is correct.

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Answer:

a. ε = 21,014sin(120πt) V

b. 0.476cosec(120πt)  

Explanation:

a. Induced emf

We know the induced emf, ε = -dΦ/dt where Φ = magnetic flux through coil = NABcosθ where N = number of turns of coil =, 100, A = area of coil = 10 ft × 6 ft = 60 ft² = 60 × 1 ft² = 60 × (0.3048)² m² = 5.574 m², B = magnetic field strength = 0.1 T and θ = angle between B and normal to A = ωt.

So, Φ = NABcosθ = 100 × 5.574 m² × 0.1 T cosθ  = 55.74cosθ Tm²

So, ε = -dΦ/dt = ε = -d(55.74cosθ Tm²)/dt = -d(55.74cosθ Tm²)/dθ × dθ/dt = -55.74 ×(-sinθ) Tm²)/dθ × ω (ω = dθ/dt = angular frequency of shaft = 2πf where f = frequency of rotor = 60 Hz )

ε = 55.74sinθ Tm²) × 2πf

ε = 55.74sinθ Tm²) × 2π(60 Hz)

ε = 6689πsinθ V

ε = 21,014sinθ V

ε = 21,014sinωt V

ε = 21,014sin(2πft) V

ε = 21,014sin(2π(60 Hz)t) V

ε = 21,014sin(120πt) V

b. Current in coil

Since power P = Iε where I = current and ε = induced emf = 21,014sinθ V.

Since power, P = 10 kW = 10000 W

I = P/ε

= 10000 W/21,014sinθ V

= 0.476/sinθ

= 0.476cosecθ

= 0.476cosecωt

= 0.476cosec(120πt)  

The maximum current is obtained when θ = 90°

I =  10000 W/21,014sin90 V

I = 10000 W/21,014 V

I = 0.476 A

I = 476 mA

Answer:

Alternating voltage leads to electromagnetic induction which is necessary for the transformer to work.

Explanation:

According to Oxford dictionary; an alternating current is "an electric current that reverses its direction many times a second at regular intervals".

A transformer works on the principle of electromagnetic induction. A transformer requires an alternating current which can create a changing magnetic field leading to induced voltage in the coil.

Hence, a transformer requires alternating voltage because alternating voltage leads to electromagnetic induction which is necessary for the transformer to work.

Answer: I think you have the correct answer. (I think it is false.)

Explanation: The Earth's magnetic field is mostly caused by electric currents in the liquid outer core. The Earth's core is hotter than 1043 K, the Curie point temperature above which the orientations of spins within iron become randomized. Such randomization causes the substance to lose its magnetization.