PLZ, HELP WILL GIVE 20 MORE POINTS FOR FREE!!!!!!

Answer:

136 people

Step-by-step explanation:

$462.40 divided by 3.40 is 136

Si tiene 80 cm de altura mier 800 milímetros de altura

Answer: SOrry no espanypol

Step-by-step explanation:

For each part, compare distributions (1) and (2) based on their medians and IQRs. The reasoning is explained is given.

The median is the value that splits the mathematical numbers or expressions in the half. The median value is the middle number of data point. To find the median, firstly arrange the data points in ascending order.

The middle number in the distribution of the provided data is known as the median. The range of values in the center of the scores is known as the interquartile range, or IQR.

(a). (1) 3, 5, 6, 7, 9 (2) 3, 5, 6, 7, 20

Since all the values are identical except the highest, the distributions' median and IQR will be equal.

(b). (1) 3, 5, 6, 7, 9 (2) 3, 5, 7, 8, 9

The median is higher for the second distribution because in the case of (2) the middle number is larger.

Since the final few digits in the second distribution are higher, the IQR would be wider for the second distribution, resulting in a greater third quartile for the second distribution than the first distribution.

(c).  (1) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (2) 6, 7, 8, 9, 10

Given that every number in the second distribution is greater than every other number in the first distribution, the median of the second distribution is higher than that of the first distribution.

Since there are the same number of items in both distributions and each number in both distributions is 1 larger than the preceding number, the IQR of both distributions would be identical.

(d). (1) 0, 10, 50, 60, 100 (2) 0, 100, 500, 600, 1000

Since all the values in the second distribution are higher than those in the first in this situation, the second distribution will have a higher median. Given that the spread of the numbers is wider in the second distribution than it is in the first, the second distribution will likewise have a higher IQR.

Therefore, the reasoning is explained.

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The number N whose forty percent is 240 is 600, or we say that 40% of 600 is 240

Suppose the value of which a thing is expressed in percentage is "a'

Suppose the percent that considered thing is of "a" is b%

Then since percent shows per 100 (since cent means 100), thus we will first divide the whole part in 100 parts and then we multiply it with b so that we collect b items per 100 items(that is exactly what b per cent means).

Thus, that thing in number is

[tex]\dfrac{a}{100} \times b[/tex]

For this case, we are specified that:

40% of N = 240

Since 40% of N is [tex]\dfrac{N}{100} \times 40[/tex], thus, we get

[tex]\dfrac{N}{100} \times 40 = 240[/tex] (as they both are same quantity, ie. 40% of N)

Now, solving it further to get value of N:

[tex]\dfrac{N}{100} \times 40 = 240\\\\\text{Multiplying 100 on both the sides}\\\\N \times 40 = 24000\\\\\text{Dividing both the sides by 40}\\\\N = 24000/40 = 600[/tex]

Thus,  40% of 600 is 240 or we say that the number N whose forty percent is 240 is 600

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Work Shown:

35% = 35/100 = 0.35

35% of 2000 = 0.35*2000 = 700

Since the card increased by 700 dollars, this means the card is now worth 2000+700 = 2700 dollars.

Answer:

a(n) = 27*(2/3)^(n - 1)

Step-by-step explanation:

The first four terms are 27, 18, 12, 8.

Find the common ratio:

To do this, let that ratio = r, and write and solve 27r = 18.  Thus, r = 2/3.

The general explicit formula for this sequence is

a(n) = a(1)*(2/3)^(n - 1), or, since a(1) = 27, a(n) = 27*(2/3)^(n - 1)

Answer:

a) The probability that a single randomly selected value is greater than 27.6

P( X≥27.6) = 0.8051

b) The probability that a  sample of size randomly selected value is greater mean greater than 27.6

P( X≥27.6) = 0.9998

Step-by-step explanation:

Step(i):-

Given that the mean of the Population = 30 weeks

The Standard deviation of the Population = 2.8 weeks

Let 'X' be a Normal distribution

[tex]Z = \frac{x-mean}{S.D} = \frac{27.6-30}{2.8} = -0.857[/tex]

The probability that a single randomly selected value is greater than 27.6

P( X≥27.6) = P(Z≥-0.857)

                 =  0.5 + A(-0.857)

                = 0.5 + A(0.857)

               = 0.5 + 0.3051

               = 0.8051

Step(ii):-

Let 'X' be a Normal distribution

[tex]Z = \frac{x^{-} -mean}{\frac{S.D}{\sqrt{n} } } = \frac{27.6-30}{\frac{2.8}{\sqrt{80} } } = -7.6677[/tex]

The probability that a  sample of size randomly selected value is greater mean greater than 27.6

P( X≥27.6) = P(Z≥-7667)

                 = 0.5 + A(-7.667)

                 =0.5 +0.4998

                 = 0.9998

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

area of triangle = ½(base)(height)

= ½(25 m)(12 m)

= 150 m²

Answer:

y = -16x + 16

Step-by-step explanation:

You can write a linear equation by getting the slope (m) and y-intercept (b).

To get the slope, you have to (y2 - y1) / (x2 - x1).

Which in this case, I'm going to used points (0,16) and (1,0).

So,

(0 - 16) / (1 - 0) = -16 / 1 = -16

m = -16

Now since we have the slope, the equation would look like y = -16x + b

You then have to input any x and y points (I'm going to use 1,0).

0 = -16(1) + b

0 = -16 + b

b = 16

Put this all together,

y = -16x + 16

Hope this helps :)

Let me know if there is any mistakes!!

Answer:

y = -16x + 16

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

With replacement, 0.2109 = 21.09% probability that there are 2 black balls and 2 white balls in the sample.

Without replacement, 0.2116 = 21.16% probability that there are 2 black balls and 2 white balls in the sample.

Step-by-step explanation:

For sampling with replacement, we use the binomial distribution. Without replacement, we use the hypergeometric distribution.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

And p is the probability of X happening.

Hypergeometric distribution:

The probability of x sucesses is given by the following formula:

[tex]P(X = x) = h(x,N,n,k) = \frac{C_{k,x}*C_{N-k,n-x}}{C_{N,n}}[/tex]

In which:

x is the number of sucesses.

N is the size of the population.

n is the size of the sample.

k is the total number of desired outcomes.

[tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

Sampling with replacement:

I consider a success choosing a black ball, so [tex]p = \frac{50}{150+50} = \frac{50}{200} = 0.25[/tex]

We want 2 black balls and 2 white, 2 + 2 = 4, so [tex]n = 4[/tex], and we want P(X = 2).

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 2) = C_{4,2}.(0.25)^{2}.(0.75)^{2} = 0.2109[/tex]

With replacement, 0.2109 = 21.09% probability that there are 2 black balls and 2 white balls in the sample.

Sampling without replacement:

150 + 50 = 200 total balls, so [tex]N = 200[/tex]

Sample of 4, so [tex]n = 4[/tex]

50 are black, so [tex]k = 50[/tex]

We want P(X = 2).

[tex]P(X = 2) = h(2,200,4,50) = \frac{C_{50,2}*C_{150,2}}{C_{200,4}} = 0.2116[/tex]

Without replacement, 0.2116 = 21.16% probability that there are 2 black balls and 2 white balls in the sample.

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

48-19=29x2=58 so yeah thats how you do dat

Answer:

(-6,8) is the answer using substitution method.

Step-by-step explanation:

y= (-1/3)(-6)+6

y= 2+6

y=8, x=-6

=(-6,8)

Answer:

The solution to this system of equations is [tex](x,y) = (-6, 8)[/tex].

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the number of equations and number of variables is the same, there is only one solution. Let [tex]y = -\frac{1}{3}\cdot x + 6[/tex] and [tex]x = -6[/tex], the solution of this system is found by evaluating the first function, that is:

[tex]y = -\frac{1}{3}\cdot (-6)+6[/tex]

[tex]y = 2+6[/tex]

[tex]y = 8[/tex]

The solution to this system of equations is [tex](x,y) = (-6, 8)[/tex].

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

there are less people to answer so it wouldn't be enough

Answer:

x

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

30

Step-by-step explanation:

78-48=30

78-48=30 es la respuesta

Answer:

Let the 'cart' total is x and total payment is y.

The sales tax is 5.6% added to the 'cart' amount and then shipping and handling fee added.

There are three intervals as below and function added accordingly:

y = 89.20, this is close to the number we got in part B and we assume it is same - the middle interval.

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Answer:

1,040 dollars

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

$1,482 is the 10th percentile.

Step-by-step explanation:

xth percentile:

If a measure is said to be in the xth percentile, it means that x% of the measures are smaller than it, and (100-x)% are larger.

In this question:

10 computers, the 10th percentile is the value that is larger than 10% of the prices.

The prices, sorted in an increasing way, are:

$1,127, $1,482, ...

Computers at a price of $1,482 have larger prices than 10% of the population, so $1,482 is the 10th percentile.

Answer:

Yes. You can make a tree diagram with each subject at the top and the periods as the branches or with the periods at the top and each subject as a branch. Both ways provide the same number of​ outcomes, 18

Step-by-step explanation:

No, there is only one way to draw a tree diagram to model this situation.

An arrangement of objects where the order in which the objects are selected does not matter.

No, there is only one way to draw a tree diagram to model this situation. The reason for this is that the choices for the classes and periods are mutually exclusive and exhaustive.

Starting with the first branch, there are three possible classes (C, G, or P) that the sister can take.

From each of these branches, there are six possible periods (1 through 6) that the sister can take the class.

Therefore, the tree diagram will have 3 branches at the top level, each with 6 branches at the next level, for a total of 18 possible outcomes.

If we try to draw a different tree diagram, we will end up with the same possible outcomes, just with a different arrangement of the branches.

Hence, there is only one way to draw a tree diagram to model this situation.

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Answer:

(0,1.25), (1,0), (-1,3)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Martin Exercised 35 minutes in 7 days. Correct me if I'm wrong

Answer:

7% interest = $10000

13% interest = $20000

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the amount invested at 7% interest be x.

Let the amount invested at 13% interest be y.

Thus;

x + y = 30000 - - - (eq 1)

We want to find out how much Paul needs to invest in each option to make a total 11% return on his $30,000.

Thus;

0.07x + 0.13y = 0.11(30000)

Multiply through by 100 to get rid of the decimal;

7x + 13y = 0.11(30000 × 100).

7x + 13y = 330000 - - - (eq 2)

From eq 1, x = 30000 - y

Put this for x in eq 2 to get;

7(30000 - y) + 13y = 330000

210000 - 7y + 13y = 330000

6y = 330000 - 210000

6y = 120000

y = 120000/6

y = $20000

x = 30000 - 20000

x = $10000

Thus;

Amount invested at;

7% interest = $10000

13% interest = $20000

Answer: y-1=-1/2(x-5)

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\frac{2-1}{3-5}[/tex]

-1/2 slope

y-[tex]y_{1}[/tex]=m([tex]x-x_{1}[/tex])

y-1=-1/2(x-5)

y-1=-1/2x +5/2

y=-1/2x+7/2

Answer:

uh...love is when you feel a certain way around someone

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

4 option...... .......

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

11.325

Step-by-step explanation:

Ce clasă ești sa văd daca te pot ajuta

Answer:

6,561

Step-by-step explanation:

multiply 3 by the last number, like 3*3 is 9 then 9*3 is 27*3 is 81 then 81*3 243 and so until it reaches 8 time