Find the perimeter of this complex shape.

Answer:

B. 9

Step-by-step explanation:

Proportions are just like fractions and to figure them out sometimes you can use simplification in different forms.

[tex]\frac{x}{6}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{36}{24}[/tex]

Now to get to 6, 24 had to be divided by 4...in proportions and fractions usually, the top and bottom are both simplified or proportioned to the same number or scale

36 ÷ 4 = 9

Check your answer by inserting it there to see if it works

9*4 = 36            6*4 = 24

Answer:

[tex]\boxed {\boxed {\sf B. \ 9}}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given this proportion:

[tex]\frac {x}{6}=\frac{36}{24}[/tex]

We want to solve for x, so we must isolate the variable using inverse operations.

It is being divided by 6. The inverse of division is multiplication, so we multiply both sides of the proportion by 6.

[tex]6*\frac {x}{6}=\frac{36}{24}*6[/tex]

[tex]x=\frac{36}{24}*6[/tex]

[tex]x=1.5*6 \\x=9[/tex]

Another way to solve is with cross multiplication. Multiply the first numerator by the second denominator, then the first denominator by the second numerator.

[tex]\frac { x}{6}=\frac{36}{24}[/tex]

[tex]24*x=6*36[/tex]

[tex]24x=216[/tex]

The variable is being multiplied by 24. The inverse of multiplication is division, so we divide both sides of the equation by 24.

[tex]24x/24=216/24\\x=9[/tex]

The value of x that makes this proportion true is 9.

Answer:

Ok first of all you start out splitting the shape into seperate rectangles, in this case 2. take those 2 rectangles and find the area of them. Say we start from the smaller rectangle. 2 x 4 = 8 so the area of the smaller rectangle is 8. Keep that in mind. Next we have to multiply 10 x 5 because that is the labeled number of meters and that equals 50. So add 50 + 8 = 58

Step-by-step explanation:

Your answer is 58 meters

Really hope i helped and have a wonderful day! :)

Answer:

58 m³

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the area of irregular shapes like this, it is easy to split the shape into 2 individual shapes, find the area of both, then add the areas to find the total.

Now, we'll split it into 2 rectangles with areas of:

2 x 4

10 x 5

To find area, you multiply the length of one side by the other. The first rectangle's area is (2 x 4) and the other rectangle's area is (10 x 5).

10 x 5 = 50

2 x 4 = 8

50 + 8 = 58

The area of the figure is 58 m³.

Answer:

The distance from Disney to the Golden Gate Bridge is 2,162.56 miles

The distance from Mall of America to The Golden Gate Bridge  is 1,320 miles

The interior angle at The Golden Gate Bridge is 35°

The interior angle at Mall of America is 110°

The interior angle at Disney is 35°

The direction from Mall of America to Disney is South 30° East

Step-by-step explanation:

The bearing from Disney to the Golden Gate Bridge = North 65° West

The bearing from the Golden Gate Bridge to the Mall of America = North 80° East

The bearing from Disney to the Mall of America = North 30° West

The distance from Disney to the Mall of America = 1,320 miles

Let 'A', 'B', and 'C' represent the interior angles at Disney, The Golden Gate bridge and Mall of America respectively

From the drawing of the triangular trip, we find that the interior angle at C = The sum angles complementary to the bearings at B and at C

Therefore, the interior angle at C = (90° - 65°) + (90° - 80°) = 35°

The interior angle at B = The bearing of C from B - The bearing of A from B

∴ The interior angle at B = 65° - 30° = 35°

B = 35°

∠C = 35° and ∠B = 35°, therefore, the triangle is an isosceles triangle

The interior angle at A = 180° - (∠B + ∠A) = 180° - (35° + 35°) =110°

CA = AB = 1.320

By sine rule, a = sin(110) × 1320/sin(35) ≈ 2,162.56  miles

a = CB = 2,162.56 miles

Therefore, we have;

The distance from Disney to the Golden Gate Bridge = 2,162.56 miles

The distance from Mall of America to The Golden Gate Bridge  = 1,320 miles

The interior angle at The Golden Gate Bridge = 35°

The interior angle at Mall of America = 110°

The interior angle at Disney = 35°

The magnitude of the bearing of Mall of America to Disney = The magnitude of the alternate angle to the bearing of Disney to Mall of America = 30°

∴ The direction from Mall of America to Disney = South 30° East

Answer:

The First Choice

Step-by-step explanation:

1/4 is equal to .25

.25 x 4= 1.00

25 x 4= 100

Answer:

That one

Step-by-step explanation:

It's kinda obvious if you look at the choices.

Answer:

8+14

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Well elimination is basically multiplying a number to make it possible for it to cancel out

We can multiply the first equation by 2

2(x+2y=-1)

This would be

2x+4y=-2

Its still the same thing but just with non simplified numbers

We can now do any method really to solve

I will just do the subtraction method

2x+4y=-2

-2x+y=4

Solve

2x-2x=0

4y-y= 3y

-2-4= -6

3y= -6

Now solve

y=-2

To find x subsitute in “y” and find ”x”.

x+2*-2=-1

x-4=-1

x=3

y= -2

x= 3

Answer:

D) 20

Step-by-step explanation:

the missing value is 20

the last option

The equation h(x) = 2x - 0 = x - 10 is satisfied by the value x = -10; the omitted integer is 10.

A function is a mathematical formula that illustrates the relationship between the dependent and independent variables. The independent variable's value and the dependent variable's value both change in the function.

Determine x in terms of f(x) in order to determine the inverse of the function f(x) = x + 10:

f(x) = x + 10

f(x) - 10 = x

x = f(x) - 10

Since h(x) is the opposite of f(x), replace x with h(x):

h(x) = f⁻¹(x) = x - 10

Since h(x) is the opposite of f(x), replace x with h(x):

To identify the missing value, compare the expression for h(x) to the supplied function, h(x) = 2x-0. We can see that the appropriate expression for h(x) is:

h(x) = 2x - 0 = x - 10

Find the value of x that allows this equation to be solved:

2x - 0 = x - 10

Simplifying and solving for x,

x = -10

Therefore, the missing value is O 10, since x = -10 satisfies the equation h(x) = 2x - 0 = x - 10

To know more about function follow

https://brainly.com/question/18465990

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Answer:

RS = 17

Step-by-step explanation:

Given S lies on RT , then

RS + ST = RT , that is

RS + 3 = 20 ( subtract 3 from both sides )

RS = 17

Answer:

y=6x+7

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

11 months

Step-by-step explanation:

Since he has already read 14 books subtract them from the 80 books. you'll end up with 66. then diviid by 6 and you'll get 11 months

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

6.6%

Step-by-step explanation:

1: no solution

2: infinitely many solutions

3: one solution

Answer:

13x degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

brainliest????!!!

Answer:

82 ☺️

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

22

Step-by-step explanation:

if mai scores 5 points and noah scores 3 times that then noah scored 15 points, and if tyler scores four less than noah than he scored 11 points, which you multiply by 2 to get elena's score which is 22

Answer

5/36 ([tex]\frac{5}{36}[/tex])

Answer:

22/35

Step-by-step explanation:

27/9 = 3

3 × 11/5 ×2/21

=22/35

Answer:

I think its C

Step-by-step explanation:

Alex and Jack work for a computer software company. Alex can write a computer program in 24 hours, while

Jack can write it in 16 hours. How long will it take them to write the program together?

Answer: 9.6 hours

Answer:

C. 672

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

C) 672

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

17x

Step-by-step explanation:

so first 2x is 2 x x = 2x

then +10 =12x then 5 + x = 5x so 5x + 12x = 17x

Answer:

B 136.8 cm²

Step-by-step explanation:

Add the diameters of the three smaller circles to find the diameter of the largest circle.

D = 3 cm + 2.5 cm + 1.1 cm = 6.6 cm

area = πr²

area = 3.14 × (6.6 cm)²

area = 136.8 cm²

Answer:

+3

Step-by-step explanation:

(+6) ÷ (+2)

=6/2

Divide the numbers; 6/2=3

=3

Hope this helped!!!

Answer:

£75

Step-by-step explanation:

Current value= 80

previous value= 100

current value 1

previous value = 100/80

current value-  £60

previous value 100x60/80

=6000/80

= £75

plz  mark me as brainliest.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

volume of cone formula: V = 1/3 πr²h

r = 1/2 d

r = 1/2 (17.5)

r = 8.75 in

V = 1/3 (π8.75²)(18.5)

V = 1483.26 in²

Answer:

8 students

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 20 boxes and there are a total of 40 students interviewed. So, each box is worth 2 students. Since blue has 4 boxes, 4*2 = 8 students chose blue as their favorite shoe color.

Please mark as Brainliest.

⚡✨

Answer:

D) 2,4

Step-by-step explanation:

The only answer with positive numbers

Answer:

D) 2,4

Step-by-step explanation: