What is the total number of possible four-card poker hands if the hand contains exactly one heart?

Answer:

The circle graph does not represent a function because it doesn't pass the vertical line test.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Express 4/20 as a percentage.​

4/20 = 1/5

100 * 1/5 = 20%

Answer:

20%

Step-by-step explanation:

Hey there,

[tex]\frac{4*5}{20*5}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{20}{100}[/tex]

= 20%

Hope this helps you.

Let me know if you have any other questions :-)

Step-by-step explanation:

This is an isosceles triangle because in an isosceles triangle angles opposite to each of the equal sides must also be equal. Since the diagram shows 2 equal angles we can say its isosceles.

So 3(x+2) = 24

8= x+2

x = 6

Answer:

x = 6

Step-by-step explanation:

The triangle given is an isosceles triangle.

Which means, the two sides and the two angles will be the same.

One of the sides is 24.

The other is 3 ( x + 2 )

Hence, we will get this equation.

24 = 3 ( x + 2 )

24 = 3x + 6

24 - 6 = 3x

18 = 3x

6 = x

Thus, x = 6.

I hope it helps.

Answer:

30

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps!!! :))

Answer:

A) 12.29%

B) 81.33%

C) 1.55%

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a binomial model, and I assume you're meant to use a calculator to solve.

A)

This is what I have in my notes for the binompdf function:

That is exactly what we want in this case, we're looking for exactly 5 people who meet the conditions (successes) given n trials and p probability.

Using a calculator:

binompdf(10, 0.68, 5) ≈ 0.1229

That means you have about a 12.29% chance to randomly select exactly 5 adults who have little confidence in newspapers.

B)

For this one, use the binomcdf function:

In this case, we're looking for more, not less. However, you can think of the probability of getting more than 6 as just the probability of not getting less than 6.

With a calculator:

binomcdf(10, 0.68, 5) ≈ 0.1867

That means you have about an 18.67% chance to randomly select 5 or less people. We're looking for more though. As said above, the probability of getting 6 or more is just the probability of not getting 5 or less. To find the probability of something not happening, just subtract the probability from 1.

1 - 0.1867 = 0.8133

An 81.33% chance to randomly select at least 6 adults who have little confidence in newspapers.

C)

Same as the above, I don't see a need to explain it all again. Use binomcdf:

binomcdf(10, 0.68, 3) = 0.0155

Notice I used 3 rather than 4. binomcdf calculates x or fewer, or 'rather less than or equal to'. We want just 'less than 4', and that means 'less than or equal to 3'.

That's a 1.55% chance to select less than 4 adults with little confidence in newspapers.

Answer:3:1

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 2 sports cars out of a total of 8 total cars, so there are 2 favorable outcomes, and 8−2=6 unfavorable outcomes.

The odds against choosing a sports car are 6:2.  

Both numbers are divisible by 2, so this ratio can be simplified to 3:1.

Utilizando propiedades de triángulos rectángulos, veremos que la altura h es igual a 4.28m

Lo primero que debemos notar es que tenemos un triangulo rectángulo. En el podemos ver un ángulo de 55°.

El cateto adyacente tiene una longitud de 3m, y queremos obtener la longitud del cateto opuesto.

Podemos usar la relación trigonométrica:

Tan(θ) = (cateto opuesto)/(cateto adyacente)

Reemplazando los valores que conocemos, obtendremos:

Tan(55°) = h/3m

Tan(55°)*3m = h = 4.28m

La altura h del velero es 4.28m

Sí quieres aprender más, puedes leer:

https://brainly.com/question/22050734

Answer:

1=56⁰

2=56⁰

3=68⁰

4=68⁰

5=56⁰

6=112⁰

7=180-124 Ans=56⁰

8=68+56 Ans=124⁰

9=68⁰

10=112⁰

11=124⁰

12=56⁰

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

(1,1)0that is the answer I think

Answer:

A = 1,1 B = 4,2 C = 2,4

Explanation:

90 cw (270 ccw) - Same y, opposite x.

180 - opposite x, opposite y

270 cw (90 ccw) - opposite y, same x

Answer:

40 cups of trail mix should be used. but this doesn't seem like a college-level question?

Answer:

[tex]2\frac{1}{3}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Alrighty, when dividing fractions there is a trick called "keep, change, flip".

Step 1: Keep- Keep the first fraction the same

[tex]\frac{7}{9}[/tex]

Step 2: Change- Change the division sign to a multiplication sign

[tex]\frac{7}{9} *[/tex]

Step 3: Flip- Flip the second fraction (the reciprocal)

[tex]\frac{1}{3} --->\frac{3}{1}[/tex]              [tex]\frac{7}{9} * \frac{3}{1}[/tex]

Then, you multiply straight across

[tex]\frac{7}{9} * \frac{3}{1} = \frac{21}{9}[/tex]

Now, we simplify

[tex]\frac{21}{9} = \frac{7}{3} = 2\frac{1}{3}[/tex]

Answer:

234

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer to your question is 7.65.

Answer:

23.13

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Velocity of jet in still air is 970 miles per hour and velocity of wind is 210 miles per hour.

Step-by-step explanation:

Jet's velocity against wind is

3040/4 = 760 miles per hour and flying with wind it is

8260/7 = 1180 miles per hour.

Let the velocity of jet in still air be x miles per hour and velocity of wind be y miles per hour.

As such its velocity against wind is x − y and with wind is x + y and therefore

x − y = 760 and x + y = 1180

Adding the two 2 x = 1940 and x = 970 and y = 1180 − 970 = 210

Hence velocity of jet in still air is 970 miles per hour and velocity of wind is

210 miles per hour.

Actual Answer:

https://socratic.org/questions/flying-against-the-wind-a-jet-travels-3040-miles-in-4-hours-flying-with-the-wind

[tex](x-1) (1-x)\\\\=(x-1)(-1)(x-1)\\\\=-(x-1)^2\\\\=-(x^2- 2x +1)\\\\=-x^2+2x-1[/tex]

Answer:

i can help with the problem

Answer:

Brittany took a 15 minute walk every morning for 7 days. How many minutes did she walk for?

Step-by-step explanation:

You might be able to use this.

Answer: The both involve writing a rate

I hope this helps i would appreciate brainliest if possible :)

Answer:

9

Step-by-step explanation:

8000000000000

9

0

9

7% as a decimal woul be 0.07

If you have any doubt leave a comment

Answer:

Your answer is 0.07.

7% = 0.07

Answer:

1/20

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1

We can't subtract two fractions with different denominators. So you need to get a common denominator. To do this, you'll multiply the denominators times each other... but the numerators have to change, too. They get multiplied by the other term's denominator.

So we multiply 8 by 4, and get 32.

Then we multiply 3 by 10, and get 30.

Next we give both terms new denominators -- 10 × 4 = 40.

So now our fractions look like this:

32/40−30/40

Step 2

Since our denominators match, we can subtract the numerators.

32 − 30 = 2

So the answer is:2/40

Step 3

Last of all, we need to simplify the fraction, if possible. Can it be reduced to a simpler fraction?

To find out, we try dividing it by 2...

Are both the numerator and the denominator evenly divisible by 2? Yes! So we reduce it:

2/40÷ 2 =1/20

Let's try dividing by 2 again...

No good. 2 is larger than 1. So we're done reducing.

There you have it! The final answer is:

1/20

Answer:$2227.22

Step-by-step explanation: I answered your question in your comment. If its not right report it please.

Answer:

11

Step-by-step explanation:

39 - 6 / 3

= (39 - 6) / 3

= 33 / 3

= 11

Answer:

a-2

Step-by-step explanation:

(3a-6)/3 You can factor the numerator to 3(a-2) so you have

[tex]\frac{3(a-2)}{3}[/tex]

simply divide by the 3->

a-2

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x = -2-y/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

(Pie)r^2 that is the area of a circle

Answer:

a=-50

Step-by-step explanation: