Wayne charges the following for repairing washing machines:
£28 call-out charge + £16 for each half-hour he spends on the repair
If a repair costs £76, how long did it take?

Answer:

Answer:

x = 16

Step-by-step explanation:

If the figure is a parallelogram, the opposite sides are the same length

3x+20 = 5x-12

Subtract 3x from each side

3x+20 -3x = 5x-12-3x

20 = 2x-12

Add 12 to each side

20+12 = 2x-12+12

32 = 2x

Divide each side by 2

32/2 = 2x/2

16 =x

Answer:

840cm² its 840cm²

Answer:

1/3 divided by 4

Step-by-step explanation:

Because you start off with 1/3 and then you split it into 4, 1/12's and 4*1/12 is equal to 1/3

So the answer is 1/3 divided by 4

Answer:

y=-4x-5

Step-by-step explanation:

as considering (x,y) as(-2,3)this shows the perpendicularity

Answer:

×= 2 this is what I got as a result to my equations

Answer:

total of 25 to clean.

did 10

has 15 left

Answer: 15

Step-by-step explanation:

Ran Needs to clean 17 cams... he already cleaned 10, so subtract 17-10... it would be 7

he finds 8 cams to clean... so we add 8+7... and it becomes 15...

brainliest appreciate

Answer:

Steps:

d = √( (3-(-2))² + (-1-4)² )

d = √( (3+2)² + (-1-4)² )

d = √( 5² + (-5)² )

d = √( 25 + 25 )

d = √50

Answer:

c. No, there are more than two possible outcomes for each trial.

Step-by-step explanation:

Binomial probability distribution:

Only two possible outcomes, success or failure.

In each trial, the probability of a success must be the same.

The number of trials must be fixed.

You ask ten randomly chosen college students to rate their experience at the dining hall on a scale of 1-5.

There are 10 trials, which is a fixed number and respects the binomial distribution. However, there are five possible outcomes(numbered 1 to 5). Since there is more than two possible outcomes, the scenario cannot be modeled using a binomial distribution, and the correct answer is given by option c.

Answer:

a. $4

b. Noah has 5/5. Elena has 4/5.

Step-by-step explanation:

Noah has $5.

a.

Elena has 80% of Noah's money.

80% of $5 = 0.80 * $5 = $4

b.

Noah has $5. We can consider $5 to be the full amount.

A full amount is 100% or 1 or 5/5.

Elena has 80% of Noah's money, so she has 80/100 of Noah's money.

80/100 reduces to 4/5.

Noah has 5/5, and Elena has 4/5.

The money that Elena has is $2.

A percentage is a value that indicates 100th part of any quantity.

A percentage can be converted into a fraction or a decimal by dividing it by 100.

The given problem can be solved as follows,

(a) The amount of money Elena has is 40% of that of Noah.

It can be written as follows,

40% × 5

= 40/100 × 5

= 2

(b) Since the Elena has 40% of the Noah's money,

In the form of fraction it can be written as follows,

40% = 40/100

        = 2/5

This can be represented in a diagram as follows,

In the diagram shown the circle has in total 5 sectors of which 2 yellow sectors represent Elena's money.

Hence, the amount of money Elena has is $2 which is shown in the diagram.

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Answer:c

Step-by-step explanation:cccccc

i am just doing this so I can get more answers

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-60

Step-by-step explanation:

-45+s=-105

s=-105+45

s=-60

Answer:

add 6 to both sides and dividing both sides by 5.

Answer:

add 6 to both sides then divide both sides by 5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x = 9

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]a^{2} = c^{2} - b^{2}[/tex]

[tex]a^{2} = 15^{2} - 12^{2}[/tex]

[tex]a^{2} = 225 - 144[/tex]

[tex]a^{2} = 81[/tex]

[tex]\sqrt{a^2} = \sqrt{81}[/tex]

[tex]a = 9[/tex]

Answer:

angle B is 27 degrees.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

It will take them 4 days to travel 1400.

Step-by-step explanation:

350d (x 4) = 1400

The number of years before the new car becomes $5700 is 11.4 years.

Depreciation is when the value of an asset declines with the passage of time.

Number of years = (In FV / PV) / r

(IN 5700 / 20,000) / 0.11 = 11.4 years

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Answer:

80-89

Step-by-step explanation:

When you put it in a stem- and - leaf plot, you'll see that 80-89 is the mode interval.

Answer:

80-89

Step-by-step explanation:

That is the range that most students got.

Answer:

To see if a table of values represents a linear function, check to see if there's a constant rate of change. If there is, you're looking at a linear function!

Answer:

Answer A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

a) 0.0618 = 6.18% probability that the sample will contain at least three defectives.

b) 0.076 = 7.6% probability that the sample will contain at least three defectives

Step-by-step explanation:

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

And p is the probability of X happening.

The expected value of the binomial distribution is:

[tex]E(X) = np[/tex]

The standard deviation of the binomial distribution is:

[tex]\sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)}[/tex]

Normal probability distribution

Problems of normally distributed distributions can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the zscore of a measure X is given by:

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the pvalue, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

When we are approximating a binomial distribution to a normal one, we have that [tex]\mu = E(X)[/tex], [tex]\sigma = \sqrt{V(X)}[/tex].

Sample of 20 items is selected from the machine.

This means that [tex]n = 20[/tex]

5% defectives

This means that [tex]p = 0.05[/tex]

(a) the normal approximation to the binomial

The mean is:

[tex]\mu = E(X) = np = 20*0.05 = 1[/tex]

The standard deviation is:

[tex]\sigma = \sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)} = \sqrt{20*0.05*0.95} = 0.9747[/tex]

The probability is, using continuity correction, [tex]P(X \geq 3 - 2.5) = P(X \geq 2.5)[/tex] , which is 1 subtracted by the pvalue of Z when X = 2.5. So

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{2.5 - 1}{0.9747}[/tex]

[tex]Z = 1.54[/tex]

[tex]Z = 1.54[/tex] has a pvalue of 0.9382

1 - 0.9382 = 0.0618

0.0618 = 6.18% probability that the sample will contain at least three defectives.

(b) the exact binomial tables

This is:

[tex]P(X \geq 3) = 1 - P(X < 3)[/tex]

In which

[tex]P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)[/tex]

In which

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{20,0}.(0.05)^{0}.(0.95)^{20} = 0.358[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 1) = C_{20,1}.(0.05)^{1}.(0.95)^{19} = 0.377[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 2) = C_{20,2}.(0.05)^{2}.(0.95)^{18} = 0.189[/tex]

[tex]P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0.358 + 0.377 + 0.189 = 0.924[/tex]

[tex]P(X \geq 3) = 1 - P(X < 3) = 1 - 0.924 = 0.076[/tex]

0.076 = 7.6% probability that the sample will contain at least three defectives

Answer:

0.03

Step-by-step explanation:

.25% for the tails times .5 for the odd number on the dice times 0.25 for the clubs because it is a 13/52 chance you will pull a clubs and put that all together and you get 0.03125 simplified and you get 0.03

Answer:

0.03

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of landing on 1 tail is 1/2, since it is 1 out of 2 options, a tail or a head. If you want the probability of two tails, it would be 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/4.

Next we can take the probability of rolling an odd number on a fair die. A fair die has 3 even numbers: 2,4,6; and 3 odd numbers: 1,3,5. Since 3/6 or 1/2 of the numbers are odd, there is a 50% chance that it would roll an odd number.

Finally, drawing a club out of standard deck of cards is 1/4, since there are 4 choices: hearts, spades, clubs, or diamonds. You now get the idea, and you can figure out that the probability would be 1/4.

Our last step is to multiply all the answers we get, since to get all of them at once would lower your chances. 1/4 * 1/2 * 1/4 = 1/32 = 0.03125; rounded to 0.03.

Answer:

- 4 + 4√3 i, where a = -4 & b = 4√3

Step-by-step explanation:

z = 8 cis(2π/3)

z = 8 [cos(2π/3) + i sin(2π/3) ]

z = 8 [cos(π - π/3) + i sin(π - π/3)]

z = 8 [ - cosπ/3 + i sin(π/3)]

z = 8[ - 1/2 + i √3/2 ]

z = - 4 + 4√3 i [in a + bi form]

Note that: cis x = cosx + i sinx

Answer:

[tex]a + bi = - 4 + 4 \sqrt{3} i[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

we are given [tex]\displaystyle cis(\dfrac{2\pi}{3})[/tex]

recall complex number trigonometric form:

[tex] \displaystyle \: r( \cos( \theta) + i \sin( \theta) )[/tex]

we are already given that [tex]\theta=\dfrac{2\pi}{3}[/tex]

recall complex number rectangular form

[tex] \displaystyle \: a + bi[/tex]

where [tex]\displaystyle a=r\cos(\theta)\: and\: b=r\sin(\theta)[/tex]

let's work with a:

substitute the value of [tex]\theta[/tex] and r

[tex] \displaystyle \: a = 8 \times \cos( \frac{2\pi}{ 3} ) [/tex]

recall unit circle

so [tex]\cos(\dfrac{2\pi}{3})[/tex] should be in Q:II

[tex] \displaystyle \: a = 8 \times - \frac{1}{2} [/tex]

simplify multiplication:

[tex] \displaystyle \: a = - 4[/tex]

let's work with b:

substitute the value of [tex]\theta[/tex] and r:

[tex] \displaystyle \: b = 8\sin( \frac{3\pi}{2} ) [/tex]

recall unit circle so [tex]\sin(\dfrac{3\pi}{2})[/tex] should be in Q:II

[tex] \displaystyle \: b = 8 \times \frac{ \sqrt{3} }{2} [/tex]

simplify:

[tex] \displaystyle \: b = 4 \sqrt{3} [/tex]

so

[tex] \displaystyle \: b i= 4 \sqrt{3} i[/tex]

hence,

[tex]a + bi = - 4 + 4 \sqrt{3} i[/tex]