The frequency, or pitch, of a musical note varies inversely with
the wavelength. The speed of sound, 340.2 meters per second, is
the constant of variation.
An "A" note in octave 3, has a frequency of 220 Hertz. What is the
wavelength of the sound made by the tuner in meters?

Answer:

E

Explanation:

Answer:

The answer is C, I just guessed and got it right lol

Explanation:

Answer:

[tex]\mathbf{v_{ground} = \sqrt{{v^2+2ghb}}}[/tex]

Explanation:

From the information given:

The avg. velocity post the window is;

[tex]v_{avg} = \dfrac{L_w}{t}[/tex]

[tex]v_b[/tex] = velocity located at the top of the window

[tex]v_b[/tex] = velocity situated at the bottom of the window  

Using the equation of kinematics:

[tex]v_b = v_t + gt[/tex]

Hence,

[tex]v_t = v_b - gt[/tex]

To determine the average velocity as follows:

[tex]v_{avg} = \dfrac{1}{2} (v_t + v_b)\dfrac{L_w}{t}= \dfrac{1}{2}(v_b - gt +v_b) \\ \\\dfrac{L_w}{t} = v_b - \dfrac{1}{2}gt \\ \\ v_b = \dfrac{L_w}{t }+ \dfrac{1}{2} gt\\ \\ = \dfrac{1}{t} \Bigg(L_w + \dfrac{1}{2}gt^2 \Bigg) \\ \\[/tex]

where;

[tex]v_b[/tex] = velocity gained when fallen through the height h.

Similarly, using the equation of kinematics, we have;

[tex]v_b^2 = 2gh \\ \\h = \dfrac{v_b^2}{2g}[/tex]

[tex]\implies \dfrac{(L_w + \dfrac{1}{2} gt^2_^2}{2gt^2}[/tex]

Thus, the velocity at the ground is;

[tex]v^2_{grround} = v_b^2 + 2ghb[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{v_{ground} = \sqrt{{v^2+2ghb}}}[/tex]

Answer:

atoms

Explanation:

Hormones are derived from amino acids or lipids. Amine hormones originate from the amino acids tryptophan or tyrosine. Larger amino acid hormones include peptides and protein hormones. Steroid hormones are derived from cholesterol.

Answer:

fffffgggggggggggggghhh

Answer:

Yes, the value will be the same.

Explanation:

Yes, or at least to some degree, that value of K will remain the same. You're looking for a difference in absorbance, and the difference should be visible at all wavelengths, not only at the limit. That being said, resolution varies, and if we don't read the value to the maximum, we can get a less accurate reading.

Answer:

Who is liang

Explanation:

i need more info if i'm going to help you out

He is most likely trying to figure out how to upload the picture to Brainly.

He knows that his question cannot be answered as long as nobody can see the picture.

Answer:

We can conclude by saying that in the beginning current will increase but after sometime, it becomes saturated.

Explanation:

Note: No information on change in number of electron generated.

Since there is a collision, the electrons emitted will not reach the collector at same time. As the voltage is increased, the the speed with which the electrons will reach the collector starts to increase. Due to this, electric current will first increases till all the emitted electrons reach the collector. Since we are not provided with the information that number of electrons generated are changing, after increasing voltage current will increase for some time and then reaches a saturated state.

We can conclude by saying that in the beginning current will increase but after sometime it becomes saturated.

Answer:

A) q_o = 0.001 C

B) I = 0.001•e^(-t)

C) V_c = 1000e^(-t)

D) V_r = 1000e^(-t)

E) P = e^(-2t) watts

Explanation:

A) We are given;

Initial stored energy; U_o = 0.5 J

Capacitance; C = 1.0μF = 1 × 10^(-6) F

To find the charge, we will use the formula for energy in capacitors which is given by;

U = q²/2C

Thus, since we are dealing with initial energy, U is U_o and q is q_o

Making q the subject, we have;

q_o = √2CU_o

q_o = √(2 × 1 × 10^(-6) × 0.5)

q_o = 0.001 C

B) The charge as a function of time is expressed as;

q = q_o•e^(-t/RC)

Now the current is gotten by differentiating the charge function. Thus;

I = (q_o/RC)•e^(-t/RC)

Where;

R is Resistance = 1.0MΩ = 1 × 10^(6) Ω

C is capacitance = 1 × 10^(-6) F

(q_o/RC) is the initial current = 0.001/(1 × 10^(6) × 1 × 10^(-6))

(q_o/RC) = 0.001 A

Thus;

I = 0.001•e^(-t/(1 × 10^(6) × 1 × 10^(-6)))

I = 0.001•e^(-t)

C) Formula for potential difference across the capacitor is;

V_c = IR

I = 0.001•e^(-t)

R = 1 × 10^(6) Ω

Thus;

V_c = 1 × 10^(6) × 0.001•e^(-t)

V_c = 1000e^(-t)

D) Potential difference across the resistor will be the same as that across the capacitor because the resistor is connected in parallel to the capacitor.

Thus;

V_r = V_c = 1000e^(-t)

E) rate at which thermal energy is produced is basically the power.

Thus;

P = (V_r)²/R

P = (1000²e^(-2t))/1 × 10^(6)

P = e^(-2t) watts

The magnitude of the angular acceleration of the pendulum at the moment of release is; α = 18.45 rad/s²

We are given;

Mass of rod; m = 1 kg

Length of rod; L = 49.8 cm = 0.498 m

Mass of Disk; M = 4 kg

Radius of disk; r = 24.9 cm = 0.249 m

Let us first calculate the torque acting from the formula;

τ = mg(L/2) + MgL

Thus;

τ = (1 × 9.8 × (0.498/2)) + (4 × 9.8 × 0.498)

τ = 21.96 N.m

Using parallel axis theorem, we can find the moment of inertia about the given axis as;

I = (mL²/3) + ½MR² + ML²

Plugging in the relevant values gives;

I = (1 * 0.498²/3) + ½(4 * 0.249²) + (4 * 0.498²)

I = 1.19 kg.m²

The angular acceleration is given by the formula;

α = I/τ

α = 21.96/1.19

α = 18.45 rad/s²

Read more at; https://brainly.com/question/23321366

Explanation:

[tex]let \: coefficient \: of \: friction \: be \: \gamma \\ from \: third \: law \: of \: solid \: friction \\friction \: force = \gamma \times normal \: reaction \\ F = \gamma R \\ but \: R = mg = 240N \\ \gamma = \frac{ F}{R} \\ \gamma = \frac{12}{240} \\ \gamma = \frac{1}{20} [/tex]

Answer:

correct answer is A

Explanation:

The diagram shows a series circuit with three resistors and two power sources.

In a series circuit the current through the entire circuit is constant and the resistance is the sum of the resistances in the circuit.

When the power sources are placed in opposite position the voltage between them is subtracted.

     V_b - 30 = I (10 + 4 + 6)

     V_b = I (20) - 30

      V_b = 30 - 2 20

       V_b = 10 V

the correct answer is A

Answer:

the distance is 315.3696 m

Explanation:

The computation of the distance is given below:

Given that

Sound intensity = 1.67 × 10^-6 W/m^2

And, the distance = 233 m

Now as we know that

Power = Intensity × surface area

1.67 × 10^-6 × 4π(233)^2 = 1.67 × 10^-6 ÷ 2× 4π × d^2

d^2 = 2 × (223)^2

= √2 × 223

= 315.3696 m

Hence, the distance is 315.3696 m

Answer:

the magnetic field experienced by the electron is 0.0511 T

Explanation:

Given the data in the question;

Wavelength λ = 21 cm = 0.21 m

we know that Bohr magneton μ[tex]_B[/tex] is 9.27 × 10⁻²⁴ J/T

Plank's constant h is 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J.s

speed of light c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s

protein spin causes magnetic field in hydrogen atom.

so

Initial potential energy = -μ[tex]_B[/tex]B × cos0°

= -μ[tex]_B[/tex]B × 1

= -μ[tex]_B[/tex]B

Final potential energy = -μ[tex]_B[/tex]B × cos180°

= -μ[tex]_B[/tex]B × -1

= μ[tex]_B[/tex]B

so change in energy will be;

ΔE = μ[tex]_B[/tex]B - ( -μ[tex]_B[/tex]B )

ΔE = 2μ[tex]_B[/tex]B

now, difference in energy levels will be;

ΔE = hc/λ

2μ[tex]_B[/tex]B = hc/λ

2μ[tex]_B[/tex]Bλ = hc

B = hc /  2μ[tex]_B[/tex]λ

so we substitute

B = [(6.626 × 10⁻³⁴) × (3 × 10⁸)]  /  [2(9.27 × 10⁻²⁴) × 0.21 ]

B = [ 1.9878 × 10⁻²⁵ ]  /  [ 3.8934 × 10⁻²⁴ ]

B = 510556326.09

B = 0.0511 T

Therefore, the magnetic field experienced by the electron is 0.0511 T

Answer:

manage your weight better, have stronger bones, have lower blood pressure, less risk of a heart attack, etc.

Answer:

You become healthier, your body starts regulating better, you get stronger bones and muscles, and you lower the risk of diabetes,heart problems and other diseases.

Wouldn't it be B because it's a majority pointing to it?

Sorry if i'm wrong.

Answer:

a = 640 m/s²

Explanation:

From work-kinetic energy principles,

The net force acting on the second object is the gravitational force and the electric force due to the first object.

So, the gravitational force on the mass is F₁ = Gm₁m₂/r² since m₁ = m₂ = m, U = -Gm²/r²

Also, the electric force on the charge is F₂ = kq₁q₂/r² since q₁ = q₂ = q, U = kq²/r²

The net Force F = ma

So, -F₁ + F₂ = F     (F₁ is negative since it is an attractive force in the negative x -direction and F₂ is positive since it is a repulsive force in the positive x- direction)

-Gm²/r² + kq²/r² = ma

ma = -Gm²/r² + kq²/r²

a = (-Gm²/r² + kq²/r²)/m

a = (-G + kq²/m²)m/r²

Since m = 0.250 kg, q = 4.00 μC = 4.00 × 10⁻⁶ C, r = 3.00 cm = 3.00 × 10⁻² m, G = 6.67 × 10⁻¹¹ Nm²/kg², k = 9 × 10⁹ Nm²/C² and a = acceleration of second mass.

Substituting the variables into the equation, we have

a = (m/r²)(-G + k(q/m)²)]

a = (0.250 kg/{3.00 × 10⁻² m}²)(-6.67 × 10⁻¹¹ Nm²/kg² + 9 × 10⁹ Nm²/C²(4.00 × 10⁻⁶ C/0.250 kg)²)

a = (0.250 kg/9.00 × 10⁻⁴ m)(-6.67 × 10⁻¹¹ Nm²/kg² + 9 × 10⁹ Nm²/C²(16 × 10⁻⁶ C/kg)²)]

a = (0.250 kg/9.00 × 10⁻⁴ m)(-6.67 × 10⁻¹¹ Nm²/kg² + 9 × 10⁹ Nm²/C²(256 × 10⁻¹² C²/kg²)]

a = (0.250 kg/9.00 × 10⁻⁴ m)(-6.67 × 10⁻¹¹ Nm²/kg² + 2304 × 10⁻³ Nm²/kg²  ]

a = (0.250 kg/9.00 × 10⁻⁴ m)(2.304 Nm²/kg²)

a = 0.576 Nm²/kg /9.00 × 10⁻⁴ m²

a = 0.064 × 10⁴N/kg

a = 64 × 10 N/kg)

a = 640 m/s²

Answer:

acceleration are

     hollow cylinder < hollow sphere < solid cylinder < solid sphere

Explanation:

To answer this question, let's analyze the problem. Let's use conservation of energy

Starting point. Highest point

          Em₀ = U = m g h

Final point. To get off the ramp

          Em_f = K = ½ mv² + ½ I w²

notice that we include the kinetic energy of translation and rotation

energy is conserved

        Em₀ = Em_f

        mgh = ½ m v² +1/2 I w²

angular and linear velocity are related

         v = w r

         w = v / r

we substitute

          mg h = ½ v² (m + I / r²)

          v² = 2 gh   [tex]\frac{m}{m+ \frac{I}{r^2} }[/tex]

          v² = 2gh    [tex]\frac{1}{1 + \frac{I}{m r^2} }[/tex]

this is the velocity at the bottom of the plane ,, indicate that it stops from rest, so we can use the kinematics relationship to find the acceleration in the axis ax (parallel to the plane)

         v² = v₀² + 2 a L

where L is the length of the plane

         v² = 2 a L

         a = v² / 2L

we substitute

         a = [tex]g \ \frac{h}{L} \ \frac{1}{1+ \frac{I}{m r^2 } }[/tex]

let's use trigonometry

         sin θ = h / L

we substitute

         a = g sin θ   \ \frac{h}{L} \  \frac{1}{1+ \frac{I}{m r^2 } }

the moment of inertia of each object is tabulated, let's find the acceleration of each object

a) Hollow cylinder

      I = m r²

we look for the acerleracion

      a₁ = g sin θ    [tex]\frac{1}{1 + \frac{mr^2 }{m r^2 } }[/tex]1/1 + mr² / mr² =

      a₁ = g sin θ    ½

b) solid cylinder

       I = ½ m r²

       a₂ = g sin θ  [tex]\frac{1}{1 + \frac{1}{2} \frac{mr^2}{mr^2} }[/tex] = g sin θ   [tex]\frac{1}{1+ \frac{1}{2} }[/tex]

       a₂ = g sin θ   ⅔

c) hollow sphere

     I = 2/3 m r²

     a₃ = g sin θ   [tex]\frac{1}{1 + \frac{2}{3} }[/tex]

     a₃ = g sin θ [tex]\frac{3}{5}[/tex]

d) solid sphere

     I = 2/5 m r²

     a₄ = g sin θ  [tex]\frac{1 }{1 + \frac{2}{5} }[/tex]

     a₄ = g sin θ  [tex]\frac{5}{7}[/tex]

We already have all the accelerations, to facilitate the comparison let's place the fractions with the same denominator (the greatest common denominator is 210)

a) a₁ = g sin θ ½ = g sin θ      [tex]\frac{105}{210}[/tex]

b) a₂ = g sinθ ⅔ = g sin θ     [tex]\frac{140}{210}[/tex]

c) a₃ = g sin θ [tex]\frac{3}{5}[/tex]= g sin θ       [tex]\frac{126}{210}[/tex]

d) a₄ = g sin θ [tex]\frac{5}{7}[/tex] = g sin θ      [tex]\frac{150}{210}[/tex]

the order of acceleration from lower to higher is

     a₁ <a₃ <a₂ <a₄

acceleration are

     hollow cylinder < hollow sphere < solid cylinder < solid sphere

Answer:

sum of volumes = (16.6 ± 0.03) cm³

and difference of volumes = (3.8 ± 0.03) cm³

Explanation:

Here,

V₁ = (10.2 ± 0.02) cm³ and V₂ = (6.4 ± 0.01) cm³.

Now,

∆V = ± (∆V₁ + ∆V₂)

= ± (0.02 + 0.01) cm³

= ± 0.03 cm³

V₁ + V₂ = (10.2 + 6.4) cm³ = 16.6 cm³ and

V₁ - V₂ = (10.2 - 6.4) cm³ = 3.8 cm³

Thus, sum of volumes = (16.6 ± 0.03) cm³

and difference of volumes = (3.8 ± 0.03) cm³

-TheUnknownScientist

Answer:

I hope it's helpful .............

Answer:

Radio telescopes are LARGER than optical telescopes and this is because radio wavelengths  are much longer than optical wavelengths

Explanation:

In general radio telescopes are LARGER than optical telescopes and this is because radio wavelengths  are much longer than optical wavelengths.

The main difference between radio telescopes and other telescopes especially optical telescopes is based on size and wavelength of both telescopes  

Answer:

(A) The total resistance of the circuit is 25 Ω

(B) The current through each resistor is 4.4 A

(C) For 10Ω: Potential drop = 44 V

     For 15Ω: Potential drop = 66 V

Explanation:

Given;

potential difference, V = 110V

resistors in series, = 10Ω and a 15Ω

(A) The total resistance of the circuit is calculated as follows;

Rt = 10Ω + 15Ω = 25Ω

(B) The current through each resistor;

Same current will flow through the two resistors since they are in series.

I = V/Rt

I = 110 / 25

I = 4.4 A

(C) The voltage drop across each resistor;

For 10Ω: Potential drop = IR₁ = 4.4 x 10 = 44 V

For 15Ω: Potential drop = IR₂ = 4.4 x 15 = 66 V

Answer:

Virtual

Explanation:

Answer:

B. Virtual

Good Luck!

The unit called horsepower is defined based on the amount of work a horse can do in 1 minute.

James Watt used the horsepower unit for the first time in 1782. According to the account, James Watt used a pony to charge coal from the mines. According to the narrative, he needed a unit to measure the force of one of these animals.

He discovers that they can move 22.000 lbs per minute and decides to (arbitrarily) boost this metric by 50%. Having been the unit 33.000 lb/ft per minute, horsepower is an engine's output horsepower rating, whereas brake horsepower is an engine's input brake horsepower.

Brake horsepower measures an engine's power without accounting for power losses, whereas HP accounts for power losses. Horsepower of the brakes

Therefore, the horsepower unit is defined by the amount of work a horse can do in one minute.

To learn more about horsepower, refer to the link:

https://brainly.com/question/8652948

#SPJ2

Answer

t = 367.77 s = 6.13 min

Explanation:

According to the law of conservation of energy:

[tex]Heat\ Supplied\ By \ Heater = Heat\ Absorbed\ by\ Glass + Heat\ Absorbed\ by\ Water\\Pt = m_gC_g\Delta T_g + m_wC_w\Delta T_w\\[/tex]

where,

P = Electric Power of Heater =  300 W

t = time required = ?

m_g = mass of glass = 300 g = 0.3 kg

m_w = mass of water = 250 g = 0.25 kg

C_g = speicific heat of glass = 840 J/kg.°C

C_w =  specific heatof water = 4184 J/kg.°C

ΔT_g = ΔT_w = Change in Temperature of Glass and water = 100°C - 15°C

ΔT_g = ΔT_w = 85°C

Therefore,

[tex](300\ W)(t) = (0.3\ kg)(840\ J/kg.^oC)(85^oC)+(0.25\ kg)(4184\ J/kg.^oC)(85^oC)\\[/tex]

t = 367.77 s = 6.13 min

Answer:

d.) form supernovas

Explanation:

Learned this in physical school last year

Answer:

Explanation:

The light waves in the reflected sunlight are horizontally polarized, which illustrates that they oscillate at a [tex]90^o[/tex] angle related to a vertical line.

Depending on the condition of the height of the light, the glare can be almost entirely horizontally polarized. Furthermore, all reflections from over-water surfaces are partially polarized. The water becomes more translucent when using polarized sunglasses.

If polarized sunglasses are to be efficient against solar glare, the transmission axis should be positioned at an angle of [tex]\theta = 45^{o}[/tex]

Answer:

I would say color.

Explanation:

Because for me most of the time the warm color mean It hot. and the cool color most likily to mean cold  

Answer:

Color

Explanation:

The temperature of a star is determined by the color. lol :)