Solve for x. Answer as a whole number.

Answer:

y = 8x + 25

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the coordinates (10, 105) and (20, 185)

The standard linear equation is expressed as y = mx+c

m is the slope

c is the intercept

m = 185 - 105/20-10

m = 80/10

m = 8

Get the y-intercept

Since y = mx+c

105 = 8(10) + c

105 = 80 + c

c = 105 - 80

c = 25

Get the required equation

Recall that y = mx+c

y = 8x + 25

Hence the required equation is y = 8x + 25

Answer: 8

Step-by-step explanation: plug in -62 as equal to x

Answer:

4) 2xy(x^2-2x-8)  2xy(x-4) (x+2)

5) 3(x^2-9x-10   3(x+1) (x-10)

Step-by-step explanation:

it's good to write it out

length = 5 + width

area = 150

width = x

length = 5 + x

area = length * width

so

(5 + x) (x) = 150

5x + x^2 = 150

x^2 + 5x - 150 = 0

following you have to guess what 2 numbers when multiplied male 150 and when added make 5

and they are 15 and 10

(x +15) (x-10)

x = -15

x = 10

so the dimensions are

length = 15

and

width = 10

Answer:

She forgot to multiply. She wasn’t supposed to add.

Step-by-step explanation:

Jasmine made an error where the 9(9) connect. She added and got 18, but instead, you’re supposed to multiply the 9 x 9, which is 81. Now, we add the 3, and the sum is 84m.

Answer:

CFD = 180

EFD= 152

180-152= 28

CFE= 28

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x = 1, y = 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

x - y = -2

2x + y = 5

First, add y on both sides for the first equation.

x = y - 2

Then, plug in x into the second equation.

2(y -2) + y = 5

2y - 4 + y = 5

3y = 9

y = 3.

Next, now that you've found y, plug it into either the first or second equation to solve for x. I'll be using the second equation.

2x + 3 = 5

2x = 2

x = 1.

Ans: x = 1, y = 3

Answer:

63.5, 66.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Approximately 68% of Camden's finishing times fall within the interval from 63.5 seconds to 66.5 seconds.

The empirical rule states that for a normal distribution, approximately 68% of the data lies within one standard deviation of the mean, approximately 95% of the data lies within two standard deviations of the mean, and approximately 99.7% of the data lies within three standard deviations of the mean.

Since we want to find the interval that represents the middle 68% of Camden's finishing times, we need to find the range of times that are one standard deviation above and below the mean.

The mean of Camden's finishing times is 65 seconds, and the standard deviation is 1.5 seconds, so the interval that represents the middle 68% of his finishing times is:

[65 - 1.5, 65 + 1.5] = [63.5, 66.5] seconds

This means that approximately 68% of Camden's finishing times fall within the interval from 63.5 seconds to 66.5 seconds.

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Took the test :)

Answer:

10

Step-by-step explanation:

:)

Answer:

the answer is 10 :) I hope you do well in the rest of your test!

Answer:

$5047

Step-by-step explanation:

im smart

deltamath gang

Answer:

42

Step-by-step explanation:

7 * 6 = 42

Hope this helps!

Answer:

42

Step-by-step explanation:

6 x 7 =42

Hope this helps! Please mark brainiest!

Split this figure out. Find the area of the square, as well as the rectangle.

First, the square

A= 4 x 3

A= 12 ft^2

Therefore, the square has an area of 12ft^2.

Then, the rectangle.

We must first find the length of the unknown side.

We have two measurements of 3ft on each side, as well as the middle measurement of 4ft.

So,

3+3+4=10

Now, find the area.

A= 2 x 10

A=20ft^2

Add the areas.

20+12=32ft^2

Therefore, the area of the figure is 32ft^2.

I hope this is correct. Best of luck.

Answer:

48 ounces

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

64 ounces.

Step-by-step explanation:

combined weigh = weight of cat 1 + weight of cat 2

combined weigh = 17 + 12 = 29 pounds

The difference in weight of the Dog's weigh by the combined cat's weigh is the subtraction between the two, so we have:

Difference in weigh = 33 - 29 = 4 pounds

We now have to convert it to ounces, since 1 pound contains 16 ounces we can multiply the value of the weigh in pounds by 16 to obtain the final value:

Difference in weigh = (4 pounds)* 16 = 64 ounces

Answer:

Tommy bought 6 boxes

Step-by-step explanation:

subtract 35 from 191, and you get 156. 156 divided by 26 = 6. so 6 boxes

Answer:

B ; C ; D

Step-by-step explanation:

Number of faces on a number cube = 6

Sample space = (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6)

P(1 then 0)

P(1) = 1/6 ; P(0) = 0

P(1 then 0) = 1/6 * 0 = 0

P(even number then odd number) :

P(even number) = 3/6 = 1/2

P(odd) = 3/6 = 1/2

P(even number then odd number) = 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/4

P(6 then 2) :

P(6) = 1/6 ; P(2) = 1/6 = 1/2

P(6 then 2) = 1/6 * 1/6 = 1/36

P(even number then 5) :

P(even) = 3/6 = 1/2

P(5) = 1/6

P(even number then 5) = 1/2 * 1/6 = 1/12

P(odd number then 2) :

P(odd) = 3/6 = 1/2

P(2) = 1/6

P(odd number then 2) = 1/2 * 1/6 = 1/12

Answer:

Theoretical probability is what is expected and experimental probability is the answer.

Step-by-step explanation:

Theoretical probability is what you expected the answer to be. In reality the experimental probability is the actual answer.

Answer: it’s 24

Step-by-step explanation: I need brainliest for next rank I’d appreciate it

Answer:

24

Step-by-step explanation:

Penny's Pickles divide their company into 10,000 shares of stock. If you buy 200 of these shares then you will have  [tex]2\[/tex]  percent of Penny's Pickles.

Percentage a is a number or ratio expressed as a fraction of 100. It is often denoted using the percent sign, [tex]\%[/tex].

Percentage [tex]=\frac{ You\ owned}{Total \ share} * 100[/tex]

We have,

Total shares of Penny's Pickles [tex]=10,000[/tex]

You owned shares   [tex]= 200[/tex]

So,

Using above formula,

Percentage [tex]=\frac{ You\ owned}{Total \ share} * 100[/tex]

Percentage of shares I owned [tex]=\frac{200}{10000} * 100[/tex]

                                                    [tex]= 2 \%[/tex]

So, the shares you owned are [tex]2\ \%[/tex] of total share of the Penny's Pickles.

Hence, we can say that Penny's Pickles divide their company into 10,000 shares of stock. If you buy 200 of these shares then you will have  [tex]2\[/tex]  percent of Penny's Pickles.

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Answer:1.7

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

P=3/6 ×5/26=5/52

2.for Corner

P=3/6×5/26=5/52

3. for Cecilia

P=2/6×5/26=5/78

Answer:

The sum is 10

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: 2 1/2 + 2 1/2 + 2 1/2 + 2 1/2

Rewrite: 4(2 1/2)

Make fraction improper: 4(5/2)

Distribute: 20/2

Simplify: 10

Answer:

D. x = 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Graph the line using the slope and y-intercept, or two points.

Slope: Undefined

y-intercept: No y-intercept

x

y

3

0

3

1

Answer:

1539 ft^3

Step-by-step explanation:

3.5×3.5=12.25

12.25×3.14=38.465

38.465×40=1,538.6

1538.6 rounded to the nearest whole number is 1539.

Answer:

I believe it is D

Step-by-step explanation:

We can first multiply the 2 and 4 together to get 8.

Wow we already eliminated A.

When you have negative powers, you can just replace it with their inverse and turn the power positive.

For example, 2 to the power of -3  (2 ^ -3) can be replaced by 1/2 to the power of 3 (1/2^-3).

So we now have 8  (x^4 / yx^2

We can then just subtract the x's power of 2, because when dividing exponents with the same variable or base, we can just subtract them.

For example, x^5  divided by x ^ 2 has the same base/ variable of x, and you can subtract the 5 by 2 to get x^3.

So we have 8 ( x^2y)

So 8x^2 y

D.

Answer:

it's 47 degree answer of your question

Given:

There are 3 cards, a 5 a 6 and a 7.

You pick a card at random. Without putting the first card back, you pick a second card at random.

To find:

The probability of picking a 5 and then picking a 6.

Solution:

We have,

Total number of cards = 3

Number of card of 5 = 1

So, probability of getting a card of 5 is:

[tex]P(5)=\dfrac{\text{Number of card of 5}}{\text{Total number of cards}}[/tex]

[tex]P(5)=\dfrac{1}{3}[/tex]

After this selection, the remaining number of cards is 2. So, probability of getting a card of 6 in second draw is:

[tex]P(6)=\dfrac{\text{Number of card of 6}}{\text{Total number of remaining cards}}[/tex]

[tex]P(6)=\dfrac{1}{2}[/tex]

Now, the probability of picking a 5 and then picking a 6 is

[tex]P(\text{5 then 6})=P(5)\times P(6)[/tex]

[tex]P(\text{5 then 6})=\dfrac{1}{3}\times \dfrac{1}{2}[/tex]

[tex]P(\text{5 then 6})=\dfrac{1}{6}[/tex]

Therefore, the probability of picking a 5 and then picking a 6 is [tex]\dfrac{1}{6}[/tex].