rationale for seeking specialization in a ms counseling-related program this section must address: your clear understanding of the clinical program area, with attention to licensure and the role of a licensed counselor. the clear link between the program you selected and your career goals. your substantive, carefully considered reasons for seeking a clinical graduate degree in counseling (beyond merely being a good listener or wanting to help others). support your ideas with relevant information from reliable sources, utilizing correct apa formatting.

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Answer 1

Both a Master of Science (MS) and a Master of Arts (MA) are postgraduate degree programs that educate you to work as a therapist in specialties like substance misuse counseling, marital and family therapy, and mental health counseling.

What’s the difference between an MA and MS in Counseling?Both a Master of Science (MS) and a Master of Arts (MA) are postgraduate degree programs that educate you to work as a therapist in specialties like substance misuse counseling, marital and family therapy, and mental health counseling.According to Dr. Karen Miranda, the director of Regis College's graduate counseling programs, "the truth is that there really isn't much of a difference between the two degrees at all." Many students believe that since you use the word "arts," you are drawing from the liberal arts, while they believe that you are pulling more from the sciences when you use the word "science." At least for counseling programs, that is less true at the graduate level, even while it is more true at the undergraduate level.Dr. Miranda claims that regardless of whether you're pursuing an MA or MS degree, the required essentials will be covered in the core curriculum. TThese include theories of counseling, human growth and development, helping relationships, social and cultural foundations, and research methods. The curriculum simply lacks sufficient "open slots" for an MA or MS to make a significant difference.

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Related Questions

what does the combining form pyr/o in the term pyrosis mean?

Answers

pyr/o. means fever or fire. Pyrosis (pye-ROH-sis) also known as heartburn, is discomfort due to the regurgitation of stomach acid upward into the oesophagus.

What does PYR/o mean in Pyrosis?

Pyr(o) means fire or heat. -osis refers to a condition. Pyrosis means heartburn. Heartburn is a painful burning sensation in the esophagus just below the sternum.

What does O & P mean in medical terms?

In an ova and parasites (O&P) exam, a technician views a sample of stool under a microscope to look for parasites and their ova (eggs) or cysts, which are hard shells that protect some parasites at a certain stage in their lifecycle.

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which of the following is the best example of a group with which individual pharmacists can collaborate to increase immunization rates in their communities? Immunization coalitions.
Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices.
American Academy of Pediatrics.
Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services.

Answers

Immunization coalitions, is the best example of a group with which individual pharmacists can collaborate to increase immunization rates in their communities.

Immunization coalitions are associations of people and institutions that cooperate to raise the immunisation rates in their localities. These coalitions often include healthcare professionals, public health organisations, community groups, and other interested parties who are dedicated to raising awareness of the value of immunisation and expanding access to vaccines.

In these coalitions, pharmacists can have a significant impact by working with other medical professionals and neighbourhood groups to raise awareness of the advantages of immunisation, remove obstacles to vaccination, and promote immunization-friendly governmental policies.

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a nursing supervisor is encouraging the increased use of ebp and is requesting appropriate reports to reference. which component of ebp does the nurse prioritize?

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External evidence is an important component of the EBP which the nurse needs to prioritize.

As a nurse, I often hear the term evidence-based practice (EBP). EBP is the process used to review, analyze and translate the latest scientific knowledge. Components of evidence are based on practice, the Best available evidence. Clinician knowledge and skills. patient's wishes and needs.

A fundamental principle of evidence-based practice is that the more reliable evidence – the best available evidence – is used, the better the quality of decision-making is likely to be. It should be done by the care recipient in the context of available resources, based on relevant knowledge.

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a client is diagnosed with catatonic stupor. the client is lying on the bed, hidden under the sheets, with her body pulled into a fetal position. the nurse would take which appropriate action?

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the nurse should sit beside the client in silence with occasional open-ended questions a client who is diagnosed with catatonic stupor while the   client is lying on the his bed, also he is hidden under the sheets, with her body pulled into a fetal position.

What does the term  diagnosed indicates?

To identify a condition or issue by closely investigating it and describing its precise characteristics The expert identified cancer. The term "diagnosis" refers to the process of determining an ailment or disease from a patient's symptoms. His residents had to make multiple diagnoses before coming to the correct decision. The verb "diagnose" also means to distinguish or to identify via diagnosis.

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a school nurse is dealing with an outbreak of pediculosis in an elementary school. which education points should the nurse prioritize when educating the parents of students who have lice and nits?

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When the nurse instructs the parents of students with lice and nits and a pediculosis epidemic, she should emphasize the value of completing the prescribed therapy in full.

The nurse observes a rash on the patient's arms while giving her a bath.

A patient's arms have a rash, which the nurse discovers when giving her a bath. The itching and inflammation can be reduced by taking a warm bath.

Which of the following scenarios is appropriate for shaving a patient's beard without his consent?

If a patient has a long beard and is taken to the hospital, do not shave it without the patient's permission unless it is an emergency such as the need to put an endotracheal tube.

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which instruction would the nurse include in discharge teaching for a client who has had an anteriorposterior colporrhaphy?

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The haernia of the blbadder-vaaginal wall is fixed during cystocele repair anterior colporrhaphy. Chronic pain from a vaagina and trouble emptying the blaadder can be relieved with this treatment.

What is the procedure for anterior and posterior colporrhaphy?

Make small, precise cuts along the top wall of your vaagina or the back wall of your vaagina (posterior colporrhaphy) to access the weaker areas of your vagiInal wall.

After anterior and posterior repair, what happens?

Within 24 to 48 hours following surgery, the pack and caatheter are typically both removed. Observing how much your blaadder can hold and whether or not you entirely empty it when you use the restroom after the caatheter has been removed is typical.

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a large family that is struggling financially is instructed by the home health nurse about ways to increase their dietary intake of calcium. which suggestion would the nurse make?

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The home health nurse gives advice to a large family that is having financial difficulty on how to up their consumption of calcium. The doctor advised kale or collard greens for one daily meal.

When aiding a client to create a therapeutic diet high in vitamin C, what foods would the nurse recommend?

Broccoli, oranges, and beef are excellent sources of vitamin C and vitamin B complex, respectively. A client with kidney illness is receiving instructions from the nurse.

To make up for the shortage of vitamin B12 in a vegetarian client's diet, what meal would the nurse recommend?

Vegetarians need the following nutrients, and there are ways to obtain them: dairy products, eggs, and vitamin-fortified foods such cereals, breads, and milk substitutes all include vitamin B12.

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a client is preparing to mobilize for the first time following the surgical removal of a bunion on her left foot. how should the nurse instruct the client to ambulate with her crutches?

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After having a bunion surgically removed from her left foot, a patient is getting ready to move around for the first time. "Try to avoid putting too much pressure on your armpits with the tops of the crutches," the nurse should advise the client as she walks with her crutches.

A bunion is a thin hit that forms on the joint at the base of your generous toe. It happens when a few of the cartilages in the front unspecified your paw leave the empty place. This causes the tip of your large toe to take attracted toward the tinier toes and forces the joint at the base of your substantial toe to bulge.

You will likely wear guarding footwear or boot. During this restorative ending, you achieved within have the financial means set all of your pressure on your foot. To move luxuriously, you may need to use crutches, a motorbike, or a hiker. Weight posture will believe what type of process is being finished to correct your lump.

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the nurse teaches a client with type 1 diabetes how to best treat hypoglycemia. if the teaching is effective, which foods would the client identify to manage hypoglycemia?

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A client with type 1 diabetes is shown by the nurse how to effectively treat hypoglycemia. Which foods does the client choose to manage hypoglycemia if the lesson is effective? sandwich with cheese and sugar

The submitted situation for hypoglycemia is to present a intentional customer a plain sugar (such as, two packets of carbohydrate) trailed by a complex hydrogen (e.g., money) and protein (like, dignitary); the simple carbohydrate augments level of glucose in blood immediately; the complex carbohydrate and protein produce a more maintained reaction.

Hard candy and product liquid squeezed from plant are fast-acting sugars that will increase blood glucose briskly; neither supplies a maintained response. Chocolate confection and an tangerine are fast-acting sugars that will increase level of glucose in blood swiftly; neither provides a maintained reaction. Neither nut butter insane nor a jar of milk are fast-acting sugars; nut fat crackers and milk maybe used to uphold the sweet substance level afterwards it has been bred.

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which nutritional guidelines would the nurse emphasize for an adolescent who has anorexia nervosa? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.

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Nutritional guidelines would the nurse emphasize for an adolescent who has anorexia nervosa are, increase food intake gradually, Limit mealtime to half an hour and Provide privileges for dietary goal achievement. No need to increase intake of foods high in fiber.


The nurse would progressively increase food consumption, set a 30-minute time limit for meals, and grant privileges in exchange for reaching nutritional goals. A meal may be consumed in thirty minutes. Extended mealtimes raise anxiety, conflict, and power conflicts while drawing too much attention to eating. Remember that anorexia nervosa is a serious and complicated eating illness that calls for specialist treatment, including medical, nutritional, and psychological intervention.

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The above question is incomplete. The complete question is given below-
Which nutritional guidelines would the nurse emphasize for an adolescent who has anorexia nervosa? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
a) Increase high-fiber foods.
b) Eat just three meals a day.
c) Increase food intake gradually.
d) Limit mealtime to half an hour.
e) Provide privileges for dietary goal achievement.

a patient is prescribed griseofulvin for the treatment of ringworm. after reviewing the medical hisotry of the patient, the nurse finds that the patient is taking oral contraceptive. what advice should the nurse give to the patient

Answers

It takes a treatmemt prescription-strength antifungal drug given orally to treat scalp ringworm. Typically, griseofulvin is the first-choice medicine.

What are the various cancer therapy options?

However, the majority of patients have a mix of therapies, including as surgery along with chemotherapy and/or radiation therapy. Your have such a lot to understand and consider when you need cancer therapy. It's common to feel overburdened and perplexed. However, chatting with your physician and finding out about the potential treatments you could receive can give you a sense of greater control.

What varieties of addiction therapies are there?

One of the most widely utilized approaches to treating addiction is behavioral therapy. One or several of the objectives below may be central to their attention: 2,3 The behavioral interventions listed below

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who is rebecca nurse? what effect does her presence have on betty? why? how does ann putnam feel about rebecca? why?

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Rebecca Nurse is a character in Arthur Miller's play "The Crucible", which is set during the Salem Witch Trials of 1692. In the play, Rebecca Nurse is an elderly, respected member of the community who is accused of witchcraft.

The presence of Rebecca Nurse has a significant effect on Betty, who is one of the girls who accuses her of witchcraft. Betty is the daughter of Rebecca's friend, Ann Putnam, and the two women have a close relationship. Betty's accusations of witchcraft against Rebecca are driven in part by her mother's intense jealousy and resentment of Rebecca, who has had many children while Ann Putnam has had none.

Ann Putnam is portrayed as a bitter and resentful woman, who is jealous of Rebecca Nurse's prosperity and her many children. This is the main reason why Ann Putnam accuses Rebecca Nurse of witchcraft. The play is set in a time where witchcraft and devil worship were believed to be real and punishable by death.

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the nurse is caring for a postmenopausal patient prescribed letrozole as an adjuvant therapy to tamoxifen. which advise does the nurse give to the patient to ensure her safety

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Third-generation nonsteroidal aromatase inhibitor letrozole (Femara), which is taken orally once daily, has proven effective in treating postmenopausal women with hormone-sensitive breast cancer that is in the early or advanced stages.

As a supplement to tamoxifen, the aromatase inhibitor letrozole (Femara) is used (Nolvadex). Postmenopausal women who have breast cancer are treated with the drug. Letrozole frequently causes the adverse effect of dizziness (Femara). As a result, the nurse should urge the patient to refrain from operating a motor vehicle for two hours after taking the prescription. Respiratory function is not hampered by letrozole (Femara). The nurse does not request that the client undertake pulmonary function tests as a result. Rapid changes in eyesight and warmth in the lower extremities are possible side effects of the drug raloxifene hydrochloride (Evista). As a result, users of raloxifene hydrochloride (Evista) should be advised to report rapid changes in eyesight and warmth in the lower extremities. Letrozole (Femara), though, is not linked to these side effects.

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The complete question is:


The nurse is caring for a postmenopausal client prescribed letrozole (Femara) as an adjuvant therapy to tamoxifen (Nolvadex). Which advice does the nurse give to the client to ensure her safety?

A. "Do not drive for two hours after taking the medicine."

B. "Undergo pulmonary function tests every six months."

C. "Report any warmth in your lower extremities immediately."

D. "Report any sudden change in vision immediately."

a client reports having joint pain that has gotten worse over the last year despite gradually increasing doses of an otc pain reliever. which type of pain will the nurse document as the chief complaint?

Answers

This kind of the joint pain is referred to as chronic pain, based on the statement given..

Chronic pain: what is it?

persistent or chronic pain is pain that lasts longer than 12 weeks without relief from medication or other treatments. After the accident or surgery, the majority of people overcome their pain and resume their daily lives. There are, however, instances where the pain persists for a longer period of time or manifests itself unexpectedly without a past history of an injury or surgery.

What is the first-line therapy for chronic pain?

Acetaminophen. The first line of treatment for moderate to mild pain, such as that caused by a headache, skin injury, or musculoskeletal disease, is typically acetaminophen. For the treatment of osteoarthritis and back pain, acetaminophen is frequently given.

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the nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of colorectal cancer. the nurse understands that which information documented in the medical history are risk factors of this type of cancer? select all that apply

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A nurse reviews the medical history of a patient admitted with a diagnosis of colorectal cancer. Nurse understand what information in the medical history is not a risk factor for this type of cancer: Regular intake of a high-fiber diet

What is  colorectal cancer?

Colorectal cancer is a disease in which cells in the colon or rectum grow out of control. It is sometimes called colon cancer. The rectum is the passage that connects the large intestine and the anus. Causes of colorectal cancer include: A low-fiber, high-fat diet, or a diet high in processed meats. overweight and obesity. alcohol consumption. use of tobacco.

What are the first signs of colon cancer?

Persistent changes in bowel habits, such as diarrhea or constipation, or changes in stool consistency. rectal bleeding or blood in the stool; Persistent abdominal discomfort such as cramping, bloating, or pain. A feeling that the bowels are not completely empty. Weakness or fatigue.

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jermaine eats a late breakfast at 10:00 a.m., but finds he is hungry at 11:30 a.m., when he typically eats lunch. what best explains his hunger pains only 90 minutes after eating breakfast?

Answers

The  best explains his hunger pains only 90 minutes after eating breakfast classical conditioning .

What pain means?

Pain is a sign that something is wrong in your body. It may be caused by a wide variety of injuries, diseases, and functional pain syndromes. In general, the most effective way to treat pain is to address the underlying cause if it can be identified.

What are general body pains?

Unlike localized pain conditions, total body pain is felt throughout the body and can cause additional symptoms such as fatigue, stress and depression. Total body pain may be described as mild, moderate or severe, and can be acute, intermittent or long-term (chronic).

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the nurse assists the client to the bathroom sink to perform morning care. the nurse observes the client wash his face, arms, abdomen, and legs. the nurse washes the client's back and rectal area and applies soap to the back. the client brushes his teeth and ambulation to a chair in his room with assistance. how will the nurse describe the morning care on the client's chart?

Answers

Self-care, partial care,  comprehensive care are three types of morning care. Clients who have been classified as partial care typically receive morning care while seated by their beds or in bathroom, near the sink.

What function does the nurse perform?

The primary duty of a nurse is to care for patients by meeting their physical needs, preventing sickness, and treating illnesses.

In order to help with treatment decisions, nurses must observe the patient and report any pertinent information.

Who are nurses, exactly?

a somebody who takes care of the sick or crippled. Specifically: a licensed health care professional with knowledge of promoting and maintaining health who works either freely or under the direction of a physician, surgeon, or dentist. Licensed practical nurse, registered nurse, and qualified vocational nurse.

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Place the following vessels in the order through which blood would pass, beginning with blood entering the systemic circuit after exiting the heart.

a. Venous palmar arches

b. Brachiocephalic vein

c. Superior vena cava

d. Brachial artery

e. Basilic vein

Answers

The path of blood would be: d. Brachial artery, a. Venous palmar arches, e. Basilic vein, b. Brachiocephalic vein, c. Superior vena cava

An essential biological fluid called blood flows throughout the body, transporting nutrients, hormones, waste materials, and oxygen to and from the cells. Red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets, and plasma make up its composition.

About 55% of the volume of blood is made up of the yellowish fluid known as plasma. The majority of it is water, but there are also dissolved proteins, hormones, waste materials, and other things.

Erythrocytes, also referred to as red blood cells (RBCs), transport oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body and remove carbon dioxide. They have a flattened disc form and are made of the haemoglobin protein, which binds to oxygen to give RBCs their red hue.

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which instruction by the nurse is correct for a client with a fractured leg? double the intake of vitamin c.

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Immobilize the leg before moving the client is the correct instruction by the nurse.

A bone fracture is a medical disorder in which the continuity of any bone in the body is broken, either partially or completely. A comminuted fracture occurs when the bone is fractured into many fragments in more severe situations.

A bone fracture can occur as a result of a high force impact or stress, or as a result of a minor trauma injury caused by certain medical conditions that weaken the bones, such as osteoporosis, osteopenia, bone cancer, or osteogenesis imperfecta, in which case the fracture is properly referred to as a pathologic fracture.

Some fractures can result in significant consequences, such as compartment syndrome. If not treated, compartment syndrome may eventually necessitate amputation of the afflicted limb.

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A nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection to an adult client who has a BMI of 30. Which of the following needle lengths is appropriate to administer the injection in the ventrogluteal muscle.

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The needle length that is optimal for injecting the ventrogluteal muscle would be 1 1/2 inches.

Adults receive IM injections with a 1 1/2 inch needle. In individuals with a BMI of 30, this needle length is acceptable for providing an IM injection inside the ventrogluteal muscle, that is a typical location for IM injections. A 1 inch needle is utilized for IM injections in people with a low BMI; a needle of this length would be unsuitable for an adult with only a BMI of 30.

Adults utilise a 1/2 inch needle for subcutaneous injections; it is not ideal for an IM injection. Adults utilize a 5/8-inch needle for subcutaneous injections; it is not ideal for IM injections.

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a patient reports sudden onset of a productive cough, chest pain, and dyspnea. the nurse notes dullness on percussion and crackles on auscultation. which information does the nurse document as part of the history of present illness?

Answers

Information about dyspnea, chest discomfort, and a productive cough that the nurse records as part of the history of current illness

What transpires if dyspnea is not treated?

Dyspnea with exercise can develop into acute respiratory failure with hypoxia or hypercapnia if ignored, which can then result in a cardiac arrest, respiratory arrest, or both, all of which can be fatal. Heart or lung diseases are the most typical causes of breathlessness (dyspnea). Anemia, anxiety, inactivity, or having a weight problem are some other factors.

How is dyspnea measured?

Electrocardiograms and chest radiographs are the two most effective ways to assess dyspnea. These first treatments are affordable, secure, and simple to carry out. Many frequent diagnoses can be confirmed or ruled out with their assistance.

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which of the following are limitations of antibiotics? select all that apply. view available hint(s)for part e which of the following are limitations of antibiotics?select all that apply. mass production of antibiotics is extremely difficult. the cost of producing antibiotics is high, which in turn leads to higher prices for consumers. antibiotics may be toxic. antibiotics are not effective in treating viral infections. treatment with antibiotics can lead to the emergence of resistant strains.

Answers

The imitations of antibiotic is mass production of antibiotics is extremely difficult.

What happens if you take antibiotics for a viral infection?

When you take an antibiotic for a viral illness, the drug targets germs in your body. These are bacteria that are beneficial or do not cause disease. This wrong treatment can then create antibiotic resistance in innocuous bacteria, which can then be passed on to other bacteria. Alternatively, it may allow potentially hazardous germs to replace the safe ones. It can be tempting to discontinue an antibiotic as soon as you feel better. To kill the disease-causing bacteria, however, you must complete the entire treatment. If you do not take an antibiotic as directed, you may have to restart treatment later. If you discontinue use, it may accelerate the spread of antibiotic-resistant traits among dangerous bacteria.

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during the physical assessment of a client with dark skin, the nurse notices freckle-like pigmentation in the nail beds. what is an appropriate action by the nurse?

Answers

Paronychia, a trauma-related nail bed deformity, is what causes the client's skin at the base of their nails to become inflamed.

Skin inflammation close to the nail's base, which may be caused by localized infection or trauma, is the disorder's defining feature. Trichinosis is indicated by linear streaks of red or brown in the nail bed. Due to pulmonary diseases, clubbing is a condition where the angle between the nail and nail base changes.

Therefore, skin inflammation is a symptom of trauma-related paronychia disease. extremely thin nails The typical nail color is pink and healthy. A disorder like anemia, congestive heart failure, or liver disease may all be indicated by very pale nails. It is used to evaluate polycythemia, ascertain the degree of anemia, monitor the efficacy of anemia therapy, and screen for infections associated with anemia.

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which sign would alert the nurse that the client needs to take a break from practicing crutch walking?

Answers

Profuse diaphoresis and rapid respirations are the signs that indicate the client needs to take a break from crutch walking.

Diaphoresis is defined as the condition of excessive sweating that happens due to some reason. The reasons could be some side-effect of medication, some medical condition or some life event like menopause in females. The treatments of diaphoresis may differ as per the reason.

Crutch walking is a physiotherapy technique where the person walks with the help of crutches. Crutches are the type of walking aids designed to support the walking of people who cannot put weight of their body on the affected foot due to some medical condition.

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compare and contrast community health/public health nursing practice with hospital based nursing practice in terms of core functions and essentials services

Answers

After completing their nursing education, students struggle to choose between pursuing careers as community nurses or hospital nurses.

What is a community nurse?

Today's nurses are vital members of society because they promote health, educate the public and their patients on how to avoid illnesses and injuries, take part in rehabilitation, and offer care and support. Infectious diseases, environmental dangers, violence, deprivation, injuries, and community health may damage the general health of some populations.

What is an impairment?

Disability is the result of a person's medical condition, such as down syndrome or depression, interacting with personal and societal circumstances, such as unfavourable attitudes, inaccessible public transportation, and a lack of social support.

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which nursing intervention is most important for supporting the success ofthe bowel training program for a client who sustained a cerebrovascular accident (cva) and is incontinent of feces?

Answers

Observe a specific period for attempts at evacuation. For a client who suffered a cerebrovascular accident, nursing assistance is crucial to the success of the bowel training program.

Which course of action ought the nurse to advise to advance the intestinal health of the patient?

boosting the diet's fiber content. administering enemas to the patient as required. increasing fluid intake and activity. stool softener and bowel stimulant use.

Which preventative measures should the nurse advise for constipation in elderly clients?

In particular for the elderly, who frequently have inadequate diets, lifestyle changes include upping the fiber level. Fruits, vegetables, nuts, bran, and supplements with fiber are examples of fiber-rich foods. Including prunes or prune juice in the diet is another approach to increase fiber intake.

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which is a true statement about the difference between health promotion and illness prevention?

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The true statement about the difference between health promotion and illness prevention is: (2) illness prevention is targeted toward a specific disease.

Health promotion refers to the process that encourages people to control and improve their health. It involves the formation of various strategies that are directed towards the public health improvement. It is an education-driven volunteering process.

Illness refers to the state of being affected by some disease that may be related to the body or mind. Illness may or may nit be due to some external injury. An individual is unable to function normally in the state of illness.

The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:

Which  is a true statement about the difference between health promotion and illness prevention?

It is the responsibility of the normal citizens of the country. Illness prevention is targeted toward a specific disease.It concentrates on targeting multiple diseases at a time. The target people are of low risk.

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the nurse manager is selecting a mentor for a new graduate nurse. which qualities should the mentor possess? select all that apply.

Answers

The nurse manager is selecting a mentor for a new graduate nurse and the qualities which the mentor should possess are values and personality.

It's crucial to confirm that the ideal mentor you are considering shares your ideals. Choosing one who shares your values will help you build stronger relationships. You need to be aware of your values in for you to achieve this.

Whether you like it or not, picking a mentor involves taking personality into account. You can feel awkward if your potential mentor is an extrovert and you are an introvert. Or perhaps you want to find someone who is more outgoing so that you can model some of these traits after them.

The question is incomplete, find the complete question here

the nurse manager is selecting a mentor for a new graduate nurse. which qualities should the mentor possess? select all that apply.

Values, prejudice, personality, self-centred

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Which of the following nursing interventions should be implemented to prevent dehydration in hospitalized older adults? (Select all that apply.)
a. Implementing intake and output recording for any patients with fever, diarrhea, vomiting, or an infection
b. Limiting duration of NPO requirements for diagnostic tests and procedures
c. Administering IV fluids to all hospitalized older adults
d. Limiting the use of diuretic medications in hospitalized older adults
e. Making sure that hospitalized patients have easy access to fluids

Answers

Continuous intake and output monitoring for any patients experiencing fever, vomiting, diarrhoea, or an infection Limiting the amount of time that patients must remain on NPO for diagnostic procedures, and ensuring that hospitalized patients have quick access to fluids.

What should be done to prevent dehydration?

It is crucial to keep an eye on elderly hospital patients to prevent dehydration. When someone experiences fever, vomiting, diarrhoea, or an illness, it's important to keep a careful eye on them, document their intake and output, and give them extra water. Diagnostic test and process NPO needs should be as brief as possible. It is not necessary to give IV fluids to all hospitalised older people. When a clinical indication is present, IV fluids are given. Limiting the usage of diuretics is not suitable. Many older people benefit greatly from the use of diuretics as a medication. Acute and continuing monitoring of oral intake is required for hydration management. For the prevention of dehydration, oral hydration is the first line of defense.

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a child is diagnosed with dehydration resulting from diarrhea. the child's condition improves and a regular diet is started. which foods would the nurse suggest that the parents offer their child? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.

Answers

The nurse should advise parents to give the child things like meats, cooked veggies, and cereals. It is preferable to reintroduce nutrition early.

What food would a nurse advise a parent to give their child who has recovered from dehydration brought on by diarrhea?

Lean meats, fruits, and vegetables are advised, as well as bland diets with complex carbs. Your child's blood may become dehydrated or have low salt levels if they simply drink water.

What type of oral rehydration can you instruct the mother to give her child who is mildly to moderately dehydrated?

Oral rehydration (by mouth) is used to treat mild dehydration. Giving oral rehydration solution is a common part of this. The appropriate proportions of salt, sugar, and water are included in it to aid in rehydration.

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The given question is incomplete. The complete question is:

a child is diagnosed with dehydration resulting from diarrhea. the child's condition improves and a regular diet is started. which foods would the nurse suggest that the parents offer their child? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.

a) clear liquid diet for next 24 hours

b) drink carbonated drinks

c) bananas, rice, applesauce and toast for next 48 hours

d) normal diet with easily digestible foods like cooked vegetables and cereals.

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