NO LINKS!! Can someone please help? I'll give 25 points because I'm feeling nice. Thanks! Answer will also be marked Brainliest!

Answer:

Trechelle's reasoning is incorrect.

Step-by-step explanation:

the cost is $88.2. hope it helps bye.

Answer:

(2/3, 13/3)    (Exactly one solution)

Step-by-step explanation:

Write these equations in a column:

 x+y=5

2x-y=-3

Note that we can eliminate y immediately by adding these two equations together. We get:

3x = 2, so that x = 2/3.

Substituting 2/3 for x in the first equation, we get:

2/3 + y = 5.  Clear out fractions by multiplying all three terms by 3:

2 + 3y = 15, or 3y = 13.  Then y = 13/3, and the solution is

(2/3, 13/3)      There is exactly one solution.

Answer:

Hi! The answer to your question is One Solution.

Step-by-step explanation:

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☆Brainliest is greatly appreciated!☆

Hope this helps!!

- Brooklynn Deka

Answer:

c. 1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

7 out of 14 contestants did last time, which is 1/2 of the contestants.  You would assume that the same proportion would qualify when there are 10 contestants, so you would assume that 1/2 of 10 would also qualify for the bonus round.

Answer:

The scale factor is 8.

Segment AC is congruent to segment FD, and the other 2 sides are congruent because this is an isosceles triangle.

Triangle ABC can transform to Triangle DEF after a scale factor (multiplying each side by the same value) of 8.

Hope this helps!

Answer:

10

Step-by-step explanation:

answer: since they are linear pair therefore

x+34+ 2x+2=180

3x+36=180

3x=144

x=48°

Step-by-step explanation:

second opinion: ex are useless forget them

Answer:

B) x=48

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope it helps

Answer:

12x

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Hello

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

LES GOOO

Step-by-step explanation:

thx man

Answer:

1/8

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of getting tails on a single flip is 1/2.

Each of the flips is an independent event so you must multiply the probability of getting tails on each flip together.

So, your answer will look like this

[tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] x [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] x [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] ; which equals;

1/8

Answer:

1/8

Step-by-step explanation:

To calculate the probability you have to name all possible results first. If you mark a result of a single coin flip as  H  for heads or  T  for tails all results of  3  flips can be written as:

Ω = { ( H , H , H ) , ( H , H , T ) , ( H , T , H) , ( H , T , T ) , ( T , H , H ) , ( T , H , T ) , ( T ,T , H ) , ( T , T , T ) }

Each triplet contains results on  1st,  2 nd and  3 rd coin. So you can see that in total there are  8  elementary events in  Ω.

| Ω |  =  8

Now we have to define event  A  of getting tails three times.

The only elementary event which satisfies this condition is  ( T , T , T )  so we can write that:

A  =  { ( T, T , T ) }

| A |  =  1

Now according to the (classic) definition of probability we can write, that:

P ( A )  =  | A|/  | Ω |  =  1 /8

So finally we can write the answer:

The Probability of getting 3 tails in 3 coin flips is  1 /8 .

Answer: well if you listened on school you wouldn't need help sooo

Step-by-step explanation: LISTEN IN SCHOOL

Answer:

262.44

Step-by-step explanation:

21.87 x 12 is 262.44

E⁣⁣⁣⁣xplanation i⁣⁣⁣⁣s i⁣⁣⁣⁣n a f⁣⁣⁣⁣ile

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

im guessing you need the equation of the circle?

plugging it into the standard circle equaition you would get (x+9)^2+y^2=1 and then you would just need to rearaange it into standard form

Answer:

psst whats wrong??

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

my answer isn't on the list, but doing the math the median increased from 39 to 40, but the mean decreased from 49.16 to 45.57

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Average Speed = Total Distance / Total Time

Total Distance = 50+ 70 + 10 + 60 = 190 Miles

Total Time = 1 + 1 + 1/2 + 1/2 =  3 hours

Average speed = 190 / 3 = 63.3 mph

Answer: About 91.54 times.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

32 ounces of fruits

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that :

Number of distinct fruits purcahed = 6

Number of ounces of each fruit = 5 1/3

The total ounces of fruits purchased :

(Number of distinct fruits purchased * Number of ounces of each fruit)

6 * 5 1/3 = 6 * 16/3

6 * 16/3 = (16 * 6) / 3 = 96 /3 = 32 ounces of fruits.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1. 7x/3

2.7x/5

3. 2(1 + 3x)/5x

4. x-8??

5. 5x+9/27x

Not sure if i did  this how you wanted it done but i just simplified if its wrong let me know i can try to fix it

Explanation: The power rule tells us that when we have a power taken to another power, we keep the base the same and we multiply the exponents.

So we have p¹⁰ which is our final answer.

Answer:

3) 7:8  7 to 8   4) 40/100 = 2/5   5) 60 mph   6) 300 kph   7) Jane  8) Jon can go faster

Step-by-step explanation:

5) 120/2 =60

6) 900/3 =300

7) Tim =50/5= $10 an hour

Jane= 24/2 =$12 an hour

Answer:

look at explanation, oh and pls give brainlist

Step-by-step explanation:

3.   7:8  [tex]\7\frac{7}{8}[/tex] ,7 to 8

4.  [tex]\frac{100 l}{40 w}[/tex], [tex]\frac{25}{10}[/tex], [tex]\frac{50}{20}[/tex]

5.  [tex]\frac{2 hrs}{120 m}[/tex], unit rate= 60 miles per hour, [tex]\sqrt[2]{120}[/tex]=60

6.  [tex]\sqrt[3]{900}[/tex]= 300, 300x3=900, unite rate= 300km per hour

7.  [tex]\frac{50}{5}[/tex]=[tex]\frac{10\\}{1}[/tex], unit rate for Tim= $10 for 1 hour, [tex]\frac{24}{2}[/tex]=[tex]\frac{12}{1}[/tex], unit rate for Jane= $12 for 1 hour, Jane has the higher rate of pay.

8. [tex]\frac{65}{4}[/tex]=[tex]\frac{16.25}{1}[/tex] , [tex]\sqrt[4]{65}[/tex]= 16.25, unit rate for Jon is 16.25ths of a pushup per minute.

[tex]\frac{45}{3}[/tex]=[tex]\frac{15}{1}[/tex], [tex]\sqrt[3]{45}[/tex]=15, unit rate for Paul is 15 pushups per minute.

Jon can do more pushups in 1 minute

You deposit $4000 in an account earning 4% interest compounded monthly. After 15 years, you will have approximately $7224.44 in the account.

To calculate the future value of an account with compound interest, we can use the formula:

Future Value = Principal * (1 + (Interest Rate / Number of Compounding Periods))^(Number of Compounding Periods * Time)

In this case, the principal (initial deposit) is $4000, the interest rate is 4% (or 0.04 as a decimal), and the compounding is done monthly, so there are 12 compounding periods in a year.

Substituting these values into the formula, we have:

Future Value = $4000 * (1 + (0.04 / 12))^(12 * 15)

Calculating this expression gives us:

Future Value ≈ $4000 * (1.003333)^180

Future Value ≈ $4000 * 1.806111

Future Value ≈ $7224.44

After 15 years, you will have approximately $7224.44 in the account, considering the given interest rate and compounding frequency.

For more such questions on deposit

https://brainly.com/question/29053212

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Answer:

1.4 Inches Each

Step-by-step explanation:

This problem is fairly simple. Just divide 7 by 5 and put the correct units(inches) with the answer.

length of licorice each student will get is 1.875 inches.

A mathematical expression gets simpler when it is transformed into an equivalent, frequently shorter statement. One strategy for promoting uniformity in job effort, cost, and time is procedure simplification. It lessens diversity and variation that is harmful, unwanted, or unneeded.

Given, A licorice rope is 7 inches long. If four 5th graders share the licorice equally amongst themselves.

Since every 5th grader is sharing the rope equally.

Thus everyone will get = 7/4

Every 5th grader will get = 1.875 inches

Therefore, every 5th grader will get 1.875 inches length of licorice.

Learn more about simplification here:

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Answer:

-9/2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x = -4.5

Step-by-step explanation:

90 = -20x

-90 = 20x

-90/20 = x

x = -4.5

Leave a like and mark brainliest if this helped

Answer:

[tex]x = 16[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex] \frac{1}{2} (x + 8) - 16 = - 4[/tex]

[tex] \frac{1}{2} x + 4 - 16 = - 4[/tex]

[tex] \frac{1}{2} x + 4 = 12[/tex]

[tex] \frac{1}{2} x = 8[/tex]

[tex]x = 16[/tex]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\frac{1}{2}(x + 8 ) - 16 = - 4\\\\\frac{1}{2}*x + 8*\frac{1}{2} - 16 = -4\\\\\frac{1}{2}x + 4 - 16 = -4\\\\\frac{1}{2}x -12 = -4[/tex]

Add 12 to both sides

[tex]\frac{1}{2}x = -4 + 12\\\\\frac{1}{2}x = 8\\[/tex]

Multiply both sides by 2

[tex]x = 8*2\\\\x = 16[/tex]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

15% indicates "unlikely."

5% indicates "very unlikely."

80% indicates "likely."

Find the normal approximation to the chance that the face with six spots appears between 9, 10, or 11 times.

The exact chance that the face with six spots appears 9, 10, or 11 times?

my solution; in one roll of the die P(6 spots)=16 In 60 rolls of the die the expected number of times the face with 6 spots appears is given by E(X)=Mean=606=10 times.

SE(6spots)=SD=SQR(606⋅56)=2.8868

Applying the normal approximation to the chance that the face with six spots appears 10 times, I obtain the following: mean = 10

Standard deviation=2.8868

Using the continuity correction of 0.5 the following z-scores are found: z1=(9.5−10)/2.8868=−0.1732 and z2=(10.5−10)/2.8868=0.1732 Subtracting the cumulative probabilities for the two z-scores gives 0.5688−0.4312=0.1376 which is the approximate chance that the face with six spots appears 10 times. find the six spots appears between 9,10, or 11?

The exact chance that the face with six spots appears 10 times is found from

60C10(16)10×(56)50=0.137 find six spots appears 9, 10 or 11 times

Answer:

The answer of this question is,

The answer of first question is point 2 and the answer of second question is point 3, look at the picture