In order for an ovule (egg cell) in a flower to be fertilized and form a viable seed, pollination must occur. In this process, a sperm cell is delivered to the ovule when the pollen grain lands on the stigma and grows a tube, which enters the ovary and discharges the sperm cell to form a diploid zygote when it fuses with the egg cell. Although it only takes one pollen grain to successfully deliver sperm to the egg, numerous pollen grains are generally transferred to the stigma during insect pollination of flowering plants. Which phenotypic traits of pollen would you predict to be selected upon to promote survival and fitness within an insect-pollinated flowering plant?

Answers

Answer 1

The phenotypic traits of pollen that would likely be selected to promote survival and fitness within an insect-pollinated flowering plant include characteristics that make the pollen more attractive to the insects that will transfer it from one plant to another.

This may include traits such as size, shape, color, scent, and sugar content. For example, larger pollen grains may be easier for insects to collect and transfer, while a particular color or scent may be more attractive to a certain species of insect pollinator.

Additionally, pollen with a higher sugar content may be more attractive to insects as a food source, potentially increasing the likelihood of successful pollination. Overall, the traits that are selected will likely depend on the specific insects that are the primary pollinators for the plant species in question.

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Related Questions

Some people argue that genetically modified (GM) foods could harm crops. How could they harm crops?

A
by creating super weeds

B
by taking water from soil

C
by removing vitamins

D
by not producing seeds

Answers

A. by creating super weeds

A is a cell that points to b. b is tissue that points to c. c is an organ system that points to an organ. sunny makes a poster showing the levels of organization in the human body. how can sunny correct his error? check all that apply. arrow a should point to the organ system. arrow b should point to the cell. arrow b should point to the organ. arrow c should point to the muscle tissue. arrow c should point to the organ system.

Answers

Sunny's poster has a couple of errors in the direction of the arrows. The correct directions of the arrows should be:

Arrow A should point to the tissue (not the organ system).Arrow B should point to the organ (not the cell).Arrow C should point to the organ system (not the muscle tissue).

The correct order of the levels of organization in the human body is:

CellsTissuesOrgansOrgan systemsOrganism

Therefore, arrow A should point to the tissue (a group of cells that perform a specific function), arrow B should point to the organ (a structure made up of tissues that work together to perform a specific function), and arrow C should point to the organ system (a group of organs that work together to perform a specific function). By correcting the directions of the arrows, Sunny's poster will accurately represent the levels of organization in the human body.

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Whoever answers this ASAP with a detailed answer will get BRAINLIEST!!

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The number of chromosomes overall, the sex chromosomes, and any additional or missing autosomal chromosomes are all noted here.

How should a karyotype notation be written?

The following is the fundamental formula for creating a karyotype. The total number of chromosomes is listed first, followed by a comma. The sex chromosomal complement is listed as the second item. The usual karyotype for a girl is 46,XX, while the typical karyotype for a male is 46,XY.

P and Q on chromosomes stand for what?

The centromere, a point of constriction on each chromosome, separates the chromosome into its two "arms." The "p arm" refers to the chromosome's short arm. The "q arm" refers to the long arm of the chromosome.

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The number of chromosomes overall, the sex chromosomes, and any additional or missing autosomal chromosomes are all noted here.

How should a karyotype notation be written?

The basic method for developing a karyotype is as follows. Following a comma, the entire number of chromosomes is stated first. The second thing on the list is the female chromosomal complement. The normal male karyotype is 46,XY, while the typical female karyotype is 46,XX.

Each chromosome has a centromere, a spot of restriction that divides the chromosome into its two "arms." The small arm of the chromosome is known as the "p arm". The long arm of the chromosome is referred to as the "q arm".

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The difference between the mode of reproduction between pteridophytes and angiosperms

Answers

Pteridophytes reproduce by spores, while angiosperms reproduce by seeds.

What are spores and how do pteridophytes reproduce using spores?

Spores are small, single-celled reproductive structures that can develop into a new organism under the right conditions. Pteridophytes reproduce by spores, which are produced in specialized structures called sporangia. The spores are released into the air and can be carried to new locations by wind or other means. When conditions are favorable, the spores germinate and grow into new pteridophyte plants.

How do angiosperms reproduce by seeds?

Angiosperms reproduce by seeds, which are produced inside fruits. The flowers of angiosperms contain male and female reproductive structures. Pollen from the male structure (the anther) fertilizes the egg in the female structure (the ovary), and the fertilized egg develops into a seed. The seed contains an embryo and a food supply, enclosed in a protective seed coat. When conditions are favorable, the seed germinates and grows into a new angiosperm plant.

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if trybutyrin agar is not used within a few days of making it, it will lose its opacity. considering this,l why is it useful to have a positive and a negative control?

Answers

The use of tributyrin agar is essential for ensuring accurate and reliable results in biological experiments. It is important to have both a positive and negative control in any experiment involving tributyrin agar because the positive control is used to confirm that the test is working properly, while the negative control is used to ensure that the results are specific to the enzyme being tested.

A positive control is a sample of agar that has been prepared correctly and is used to prove that the experiment is working correctly. It is used to compare the results of the experiment to a known and expected outcome. A negative control, on the other hand, is a sample of agar that has been deliberately prepared incorrectly. It is used to show what happens when the experiment is not successful.

By having both a positive and negative control in an experiment, researchers can determine whether the results obtained are reliable. If the results of the experiment match the expected outcome of the positive control, then it is likely that the results are accurate and the experiment was successful. If, however, the results match the expected outcome of the negative control, then it is likely that the experiment has failed and the results should be discarded.

In conclusion, it is essential to have both a positive and negative control in any experiment involving tributyrin agar. This ensures that the results are reliable and not compromised by the degradation of the agar over time.

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Which sentence describes a multicellular animal?
OA. All of its body parts are made from the same kind of specialized
cell.
B. Its body is made from one type of cell that grows quickly.
C. Its body is made up entirely of small, unspecialized cells.
D. Its body parts are made from many different kinds of specialized
cells.

Answers

Answer:

D

Explanation:

its body parts are made from many different kinds of specialized cells.

Answer:

The correct answer is d) Its body parts are made from many different kinds of specialized cells.

Explanation:

Multicellular means having more than one cell. Unicellular is used when describing an animal with one cell.

Which group of people worshipped a goddess of poison?
O A. Mayans
OB.
O c.
O D. Vikings
Egyptians
Sumerians

Answers

Explanation:

The group of people who worshipped a goddess of poison were the A. Mayans. I

Answer is - Sumerians

1. What is the approximate dewpoint temperature if the dry bulb temperature is 10° C and the wet-bulb temperature is 8 °C? [Refer to the Earth Science Reference Tables.]​

Answers

If the dry bulb temperature is 10°C and the wet bulb temperature is 8°C with a relative humidity of 100%, the approximate dew point temperature would be 8°C.

What is the ratio of the wet bulb temperature to the dew point?

Wet bulb temperature is the temperature we obtain from a moistened thermometer bulb that is exposed to air flow, as opposed to dewpoint temperature, which is the temperature to which we need cool the air to saturate the air with water vapour.

As an alternative, we can apply the following equation:

Dew point temperature = ((243.04*(ln(RH/100)+((17.625T)/(243.04+T))))/(17.625-ln(RH/100)-((17.625T)/(243.04+T))))

Dew point temperature = (wet bulb temperature - ((100 - relative humidity)/5))

Using this formula, if the dry bulb temperature is 10°C and the wet-bulb temperature is 8°C

If we assume a relative humidity of 100%, the dew point temperature would be:

Dew point temperature = (8°C - ((100-100)/5))

= 8°C

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imagine you are a paleontologist trying to find the "missing link" between different species.in three to five sentences create a fictional narrative about your discoveries, 1: what two species mythical or real are you studying, 2: what evidence do you have lengthy species, and 3: what evidence you have to define different correlations and causation that support your hypothesis ​

I need help really bad

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As a paleontologist, I am studying the evolutionary link between the mythical creature, the centaur, and the real-life animal, the horse and the fossil i discovered shows that the modern horse is related to the centaur

What are the steps to find the missing link between the species?

As a paleontologist, I would present my discoveries as follows:

After many years of research, I have finally found the evidence I was looking for. The fossils I discovered show a gradual shift from a four-legged horse to a creature with the upper body of a human and the lower body of a horse.

The bone structure and musculature of these fossils demonstrate a clear correlation between the two species, suggesting that the centaur is indeed a missing link in the evolutionary chain between horses and humans. This discovery could reshape our understanding of human and animal evolution.

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To determine which allele is dominant, it is necessary to perform multiple matings of the two parents. 1. Reset the simulation and make sure wild-type is selected for both parents Run the simulation five times so that you get a larger data set. (Do not reset the simulation in between runs. ) Record the data in a table, or take a screenshot of the data table in the simulation 4. Reset the simulation and select apterous for both parents Run the simulation five times so that you get a larger data set (Do not reset the simulation in between runs Compare the data from the apterous apterous cross to the data from the wild-type wild-type cross Which trait is dominant and how do you know?Which trait is dominant and how do you know? -type wings are dominant because wild-type parents can produce apterous offspringbut apterous parents can't produce wild-type offspring wings are dominant because this is the least common trait among the offspring Apterous wings are dominant because parents can produce both wildtype and apterous offspringbut wild-type parents can't producer apterous offspring Wild type wings are dominant because this is the most common trait among the offspring

Answers

Based on the answer options given, we can determine which trait is dominant. The correct answer is "Wild type wings are dominant because wild-type parents can produce apterous offspring but apterous parents can't produce wild-type offspring."

This is evidence of dominant inheritance because if a trait is recessive, then it would only be expressed if an individual has two copies of the recessive allele. If one parent is wild type (having at least one dominant allele) and the other parent is homozygous recessive (having two copies of the recessive allele), then all offspring would be heterozygous and exhibit the dominant trait.

However, if both parents are homozygous recessive, then all offspring would also be homozygous recessive and exhibit the recessive trait. In this case, since apterous parents can't produce wild-type offspring, it suggests that wild type wings are dominant and apterous wings are recessive.

Therefore, the right response is "Wild type wings are dominant because apterous parents cannot produce wild-type offspring but wild-type parents can create apterous offspring."

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Pls help thank you will mark the brainliest

Answers

Answer: A

Explanation: I did the test

Answer:
A

Genus+Species
[Homo-Sapien]

And there’s no need to do a test, as long as you know the biological classification:

Kingdom
Phylum
Class
Order
Family
Genus
Species

You can use:
King Play Chess On Fat Green Stools to remember it.

Please mark me Branliest.

Apply what you have learned about gene flow, genetic drift, mutation, and recombination in order to analyze and evaluate their effects

Answers

The following are the effects of each:

Gene flow: Also called gene migration, is the introduction of genetic material (by interbreeding) from one population of a species to another, consequently altering the gene pool of the recipient population

Genetic drift: It is the arbitrary change in the population's frequency of a gene variation that already exists. Gene variations may fully vanish due to genetic drift, which would limit genetic variety.

Mutation: Genetic mutations are modifications to your DNA sequence that arise as your cells divide and generate duplicates of themselves. It leads to variation and better adaptation of the organism to its environment.

Recombination: Recombination is a process by which pieces of DNA are broken and recombined to produce new combinations of alleles. This creates genetic diversity at the level of genes that reflects variations in the DNA sequences of different organisms.

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where did you see mutation in down syndrome

Answers

Answer:

in an extra 21st chromosome.

Explanation:

Answer:

Down syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. This extra genetic material can lead to various physical and intellectual disabilities. However, Down syndrome is not typically associated with specific mutations, as it is a chromosomal abnormality rather than a mutation in a specific gene.

Which mineral mostly forms through chemical precipitation?
O A. Clay
• B. Salt
• C. Aluminum
O D. Silicon

Answers

Answer:

The answer to your question is • B. Salt

Explanation:

The rain that falls on the land contains some dissolved carbon dioxide from the surrounding air. This causes the rainwater to be slightly acidic due to carbonic acid. The rain physically erodes the rock and the acids chemically break down the rocks and carries salts and minerals along in a dissolved state as ions.

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Develop an experiment that could be used to test the efectiveness of these signals in regards to the hypotheses of intrasexual and intersexual selection your group described previously. Be sure and include a hypothesis, independent variable, dependent variable, control group and experimental set up. This is worth 10 points. Do a thorough job!

Answers

Hypothesis: Intrasexual selection is more effective than intersexual selection in determining mate selection.

What is Hypothesis?

Hypothesis is an educated guess or prediction based on observation and research that can be tested through experimentation and analysis. It is used to form a scientific conclusion or solution to a problem.

Independent Variable: Method of selection (intrasexual vs intersexual)
Dependent Variable: Success rate of mating
Control Group: None
Experimental Set Up:
1. A group of male and female animals of the same species will be divided into two groups: the intraspecific group and the interspecific group.
2. The intraspecific group will be exposed to signals that are characteristic of intraspecific selection (such as physical characteristics, behavior, or vocalizations).
3. The interspecific group will be exposed to signals that are characteristic of interspecific selection (such as color, scent, or size).
4. Both groups will be observed to see which signals they respond to and how successful they are in mating.
5. The number of successful matings in each group will be recorded, and the data will be analyzed to determine which type of selection is more effective in determining mate selection.

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A classic example of a symbiotic relationship is the plover bird and the African crocodile. The tiny blackbird plover acts as a toothpick for the fierce crocodile and helps by removing tiny morsels of food that are stuck between the crocodile's teeth. These food particles are the source of food for the bird

Answers

The relationship between the plover bird and the African crocodile is a classic example of mutualism, a type of symbiotic relationship in which both species benefit.

The tiny plover bird acts as a dental hygienist for the crocodile by removing bits of food stuck between its teeth, which would otherwise cause infection or tooth decay. In return, the crocodile provides a source of food for the bird. This mutualistic relationship benefits both species; the crocodile gets its teeth cleaned, and the bird gets a source of food. However, the relationship is not always harmonious, as the plover bird must be careful not to get too close to the crocodile's powerful jaws, which could lead to injury or death.

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There is a large increase in the caribou population. Explain what might happen to the caribou and their resources.

Answers

Food (Vegetation) for the caribou would be less abundant. The explanation is that a shift as in food chain will upset the balance. Other creatures would likewise be impacted as a result.

What dangers loom over the caribou herd?

Investment in infrastructure, area destruction related to large-scale natural resource exploitation, and overharvesting in some places are the main challenges confronting caribou. Caribou populations typically do poorly in places that have been disturbed by people and prefer to avoid highways.

What caribou population is the largest?

The largest caribou population in Alaska as well as the largest in the world is known as the West Arctic Caribou Herd (WAH). A caribou herd is identified by its frequent usage of a particular birthing area. In northwest Alaska, the WAH covers around 140,000 sq miles (363,000 km2).

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an mrna has the following sequence: 5'-cccauaugcugggauaucggugac-3'. what amino acid is encoded by the first translated codon? what amino acid is encoded by the last translated codon? how many amino acids are in the polypeptide?

Answers

The first codon encodes proline. The last codon does not encode any amino acid. There are seven amino acids in the polypeptide.

An mRNA has the following sequence: 5'-CCCAU AUG CUG GGA UAU CGG UGA C-3'. The amino acid encoded by the first translated codon is 5' CCC 3', and its corresponding amino acid is proline. Therefore, the first codon encodes the amino acid proline.

The last codon is 5' UGA 3', the stop codon. This codon does not encode any amino acid but acts as a signal to stop the translation process. Therefore, the last codon does not encode any amino acid.

There are seven amino acids in the polypeptide. The mRNA has nine codons (3 codons per amino acid), but the first codon (CCCAUG) encodes only one amino acid. As a result, there are a total of 7 amino acids.

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Which of the following statements best explains the role heat flow has in changing Earth's surface?

A. Earthquakes occur when heat from the sun moves the crust.

B. Volcanoes form when convection in the mantle pushes one tectonic plate under another.

C. Tectonic plates move when the lithosphere cools.

D. Volcanoes erupt when the crust is moved by the convection of Earth's inner and outer cores.

Answers

According to tectonic theory, the Earth's surface is dynamic and can move up to 1-2 inches every year. The numerous tectonic plates constantly move and interact. The outer layer of the Earth is altered by this motion.

How do the movement of materials and the transport of heat within Earth generate earthquakes?

At mid-ocean ridges, hot magma rising from the mantle pushes the plates apart. Along the cracks that form as the plates separate, earthquakes take place.

Which theory explains the shifting of tectonic plates the best?

Geologists believe that convection currents in the earth's mantle are responsible for the movement of tectonic plates. The rising, spreading, and sinking of a gas, liquid, or molten substance brought on by the application of heat is referred to as convection currents.

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Cual es el factor limitante de los osos grizzly

Answers

The limiting factor of the Grizzly Bear is direct mortality, habitat loss, and displacement due to disturbance.

A grizzly bear's fur can range from a cream colour to an almost black, dark brown coat. Their colour helps them blend in with their environment, allowing them to escape adversaries and remain undetected by prey.

A Grizzly bear has 42 sharp, long teeth. They have big, flat molars for grinding since they are omnivores. They have huge 5 digit paws, and their foreclaws are longer and straighter than their hindclaws. Grizzly bears require powerful paws since they travel only on their paws.

Although death affects density momentarily, the relationship between mortality rate and density is complicated due to the impacts of age ratios and density dependency on vital rates. Density is definitely reduced by habitat loss and environmental change that prevents grizzly bear habitation. At fine scales, disturbance has been proven to lower grizzly bear density.

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Complete question:

What is the limiting factor for grizzly bears?

How does a genetic mutation compare to a misspelled word?

Answers

In essence, genetic mutations are misspelled. A genetic mutation happens when a few or all of the four words are really not where they should be, much like a misspelled word happens when one letter is replaced by another.

A genetic mutation is a long-lasting change to a gene's DNA sequence. This may alter how the protein the gene codes for functions, which may have an impact on an organism's features or attributes.

In a similar vein, a misspelled word is a permanent change in a word's spelling that might have an impact on its interpretation or meaning.

A genetic mutation can change a protein's function, which can affect the general health and growth of an organism, much as a typo can change the meaning of a phrase. A genetic mutation can alter the predicted result or expression, just like a misspelled word can.

A genetic mutation is a long-lasting change to a gene's DNA sequence. This may alter how the protein the gene codes for functions, which may have an impact on an organism's features or attributes. In a similar vein, a misspelled word is a permanent change in a word's spelling that might have an impact on its interpretation or meaning. A genetic mutation can change a protein's function, which can affect the general health and growth of an organism, much as a typo can change the meaning of a phrase. A genetic mutation can alter the predicted result or expression, just like a misspelled word can.

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which of the following statements about urban environments is true? which of the following statements about urban environments is true? while species diversity is typically lower in urban environments than in the nearby natural environment, species exist in higher population densities as compared to adjacent natural lands. plant colonists that thrive in urban environments are those that require rather stable, persistent habitats. backyard feeders and garbage cans provide sources of disease that limit population sizes of those species that do inhabit urban environments. species diversity is higher in urban environments than in adjacent natural lands due to the variety of habitats in the urban environment. the urban environment is much more dangerous for wild animals than the adjacent natural lands.

Answers

The statement "while species diversity is typically lower in urban environments than in the nearby natural environment, species exist in higher population densities as compared to adjacent natural lands" is true.

Plant colonists that thrive in urban environments require rather stable, persistent habitats, and backyard feeders and garbage cans provide sources of disease that limit population sizes of those species that do inhabit urban environments. Species diversity is typically lower in urban environments than in adjacent natural lands, as the urban environment is much more dangerous for wild animals than the adjacent natural lands.

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The model shows a parental cell.

Which model represents the daughter cell(s) prodeced after this cell undergoes the cell cycle and mitiotic cell división?​

Answers

Diagram A best illustrates the nuclei of the daughter cells that result from a normal mitotic cell division.
• Mitosis is a type of cell division by which a parental cell divides to produce two genetically identical daughter cells.
• In this case, the parental cell has three homo-logous pairs of chromosomes, thereby both daughter cells will also have three pairs of homologous chromosomes-
• Somatic (body) cells reproduce by mitosis, while germinal cells reproduce by meiosis.
In conclusion, diagram A best illustrates the nuclei of the daughter cells that result from a normal mitotic cell division.

The daughter cell(s) produced after a parental cell undergoes the cell cycle and mitotic cell division is the one where the original parental cell divides into two identical daughter cells through the process of mitosis.

The model that represents the daughter cell(s) produced after a parental cell undergoes the cell cycle and mitotic cell division is one where the original parental cell divides into two identical daughter cells. This process, known as mitosis, involves several stages: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. During prophase, the DNA condenses and becomes visible as chromosomes. In metaphase, the chromosomes align at the center of the cell. In anaphase, the sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite ends of the cell. Finally, in telophase, the nuclear envelope reforms around each set of chromosomes, and the cell divides into two, resulting in two daughter cells.

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Researchers use affinity chromatography, using beads coated with chains of poly-deoxythymidine (poly-dT) to isolate certain RNA molecules. The desired RNA will stick to the beads while unwanted RNAs will flow through the column. The retained RNA can then be eluted. What RNA species can be purified using this method? solvent flow 1 bead with covalently attached poly-dT desired RNA species other RNAS pass through Eukaryotic rRNA Both, the eukaryotic and bacterial mRNAs ō ō Ō Bacterial mRNA Eukaryotic mRNA

Answers

Answer: The RNA species that can be purified using affinity chromatography with beads coated with poly-deoxythymidine (poly-dT) are the mRNA molecules, both eukaryotic and bacterial. The poly-dT chains specifically bind to the poly-adenine tail present in most messenger RNAs, allowing them to be selectively retained while other RNAs flow through the column. Eukaryotic rRNA would not be purified by this method, as it does not contain a poly-adenine tail.

Explanation:

The RNA species that can be purified using affinity chromatography with beads coated with chains of poly-deoxythymidine (poly-dT) are eukaryotic mRNA.

An immobilised ligand and its binding partner engage in a specific binding interaction, which forms the basis of the separation technique known as affinity chromatography. Examples include interactions between an enzyme and a substrate, an enzyme and an inhibitor.

This is because eukaryotic mRNA molecules have a poly-A tail at their 3' end, which can bind to the poly-dT chains on the beads. The other RNA species, such as eukaryotic rRNA, bacterial mRNA, and bacterial rRNA, do not have a poly-A tail and therefore will not bind to the poly-dT chains.

As a result, these unwanted RNAs will flow through the column while the desired eukaryotic mRNA will stick to the beads. The retained eukaryotic mRNA can then be eluted from the beads using a solvent.

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which of the statements below is best supported by this experiment?

Answers

The experiment's best-supported claim is (C): Because the genetic code is universal, plant cells can translate the genes of various species.

What is genetic code?

The genetic code, which is the arrangement of nucleotides in DNA and RNA and defines the order of amino acids in proteins. Although DNA's linear nucleotide sequences hold the knowledge for protein sequences, proteins are not synthesised directly from DNA.

Who discovered genetic code?

Francis Crick, Sydney Brenner, Leslie Barnett, and Richard Watts-Tobin made the initial discovery that DNA's three bases can be used to encode a single amino acid in 1961. In that instant, experts discovered the life's code.

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When two statements are connected with the word and, the new statement is called a _____.

conditional
disjunction
converse
conjunction

Answers

Answer:

conjunction

Explanation:

what is the use of water in plants​

Answers

Water is necessary for photosynthesis, which is how plants use energy from the sun to create their own food
-Water is important in photosynthesis, helps transport nutrients to other parts of the plants, and helps cool the plant down.

Please help me!!!!! Hurry!

Answers

The DNA sequence TACGCAATGCCTGGAACT transcribes into the following mRNA codon sequence:

AUGCGUUACGGAUU-GAUGA

What are nucleotides?

Nucleotides are the basic building blocks of nucleic acids, which include DNA and RNA. Each nucleotide is composed of a sugar molecule (either deoxyribose in DNA or ribose in RNA), a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base. In DNA, the nitrogenous base can be adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), or thymine (T), or uracil (U).

The sequence of nucleotides along a DNA or RNA molecule carries genetic information, with the specific sequence encoding the instructions for building proteins and other important molecules in the cell. Nucleotides also play important roles in cellular processes such as energy storage and transfer (in the form of ATP), signaling, and enzyme regulation.

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2. Discuss some of the physical and chemical factors involved in the composition, and in the preparation, of a culture medium. Nutrient ingredients: pH and buffering: Heat (to reconstitute): Heat (to sterilize

Answers

Energy supply and food that is suitable as energy source are needed for microbial growth. The following physical and chemical elements are included: Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, phosphorous, sulphur, potash, magnesium, sodium, copper, trace elements, as well as other organic culture are examples of chemical factors.

3 Calcium, magnesium, iron, and trace metals like phosphates and sulphates are essential metals and minerals. 4 Buffering substances, such as phosphates and acetates. 5 pH change indicators, including phenol red and bromo-cresol purple. Electrolytes, freshwater, peptone, meat extract, serum, or blood are the basic components of culture media. Peptones, proteases, amino, a range of inorganic salts like phosphates, potassium, and magnesium, as well as a few auxiliary growth agents like nicotinic acid and riboflavin, are among the crucial components. Stable pH becomes essential for optimal microbial growth for culture media in addition to evaluating the total nutritional composition.

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A 32 year-old-patient presented with symptoms of dysmenorrhea and postcoital bleeding. She had a history of recurrent miscarriage. Clinical examination by the gynecologist and laparoscopy confirmed the diagnosis of a bicornuate uterus. This uterine anomaly is due to which of the following?
A. Failure of fusion of the superior parts of the paramesonephric ducts
B. Degeneration of the mesonephric ducts
C. One paramesonephric duct fails to develop
D. Incomplete fusion of the sinovaginal bulbs

Answers

The uterine anomaly is due to the Failure of fusion of the superior parts of the paramesonephric ducts. The correct answer to this question is option A.

A bicornuate uterus is a type of congenital uterine anomaly that occurs when the two paramesonephric ducts (also known as the Mullerian ducts) fail to fuse completely during embryonic development. This results in a uterus with two horns, or a "heart-shaped" uterus. This condition can lead to complications such as recurrent miscarriage, dysmenorrhea (painful periods), and postcoital bleeding.

The other answer choices are incorrect because they describe different types of uterine anomalies. Option B, degeneration of the mesonephric ducts, is not related to the development of the uterus.

Option C, one paramesonephric duct fails to develop, would result in a unicornuate uterus (a uterus with only one horn).

And option D, incomplete fusion of the sinovaginal bulbs, would result in a septate uterus (a uterus with a wall dividing it into two separate cavities).

A bicornuate uterus is due to the failure of fusion of the superior parts of the paramesonephric ducts during embryonic development. The correct answer is option A.

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