In describing how to define stages, the PRINCE2 manual talks of balancing a number of elements. C) Contingency plans of the following is NOT one of them.
An entity develops a contingency plan to anticipate occurrences that could jeopardize the organization's security and assets. This would make it possible to react and recover to get back to normal business operations. The process of contingency planning has been linked to other kinds of business-readiness plans based on international standards over time.
The BC, incident response (IR), cybersecurity, continuity of operations, critical infrastructure, crisis communications, emergency and natural disaster response, and organizational resilience are all addressed in these standards. Because it can also be used as an alternate course of action in the event that anticipated outcomes do not materialize, a contingency plan is sometimes referred to as "Plan B" or a backup plan. Business continuity (BC), disaster recovery (DR), and risk management all include contingency planning.
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people who commit acts of targeted violence usually plan out the attacks and often tell someone about their plans.
The statement is true. According to what is known about past mass casualty incidents, people who commit acts of targeted violence often organize the attacks and frequently notify someone about their aims.
The tendency of persons who intend to conduct violent crimes to reveal their strategies to others by verbal or nonverbal cues is referred to as "leakage." Studies show that before committing acts of targeted violence, perpetrators typically plan them out in advance or express their anger and dissatisfaction.
This includes statements that have been expressed verbally or in writing, posts on social media, and other forms of communication.
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Full Question
Based on what is known about past mass casualty incidents, people who commit acts of targeted violence usually plan out the attacks and often tell someone about their plans. a. true b. false
which of the following securities issues must be registered in a state? i common shares of a public utility ii subordinated debentures of a bank holding company quoted in the pink otc market iii common shares of an industrial company quoted in the gray market iv investment company securities
Initial Public Offerings (IPOs) are typically filed via coordination under the Uniform Securities Act.
Initial Public Offerings: What Are They?
When a private company decides to become public and initially makes its shares available to the public market, this is known as an initial offering, or IPO. Many well-known companies have experienced the IPO process, including example General Motors.
What happens during a first-time public offering?
An initial public offering (IPO) is the process by which a private business makes itself public by selling shares on a stock market. Investment banks assist private businesses that wish to offer their stock to the general public, but doing so requires extensive market research, legal compliance, and marketing.
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An initial public offering (IPO) is the process of offering shares of a private entity to the public in a new stock declaration for the very first time. An IPO permits a company to show equity capital from public lenders.
The transformation from a private to a public company can be a significant time for private funding companies to fully adopt gains from their investment as it typically has a share premium for current private funding . Meanwhile, it also permits public investors to get into the offering.
An initial public offering (IPO) shows the procedure of offering shares of a private corporation to the public in a fresh stock issuance.
Companies must fulfill requirements by exchanges and the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) to stay at an IPO.
IPOs facilitate companies with an occasion to get capital by offering shares with the medium of the primary market.
Companies employ investment banks to industry, gauge demand, release the IPO price and date, and furthermore. An IPO can be observed as an end plan for the company’s founders and new investors, knowing the full profit from their private investment.
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u.s. marshals do not group of answer choices provide security at the u.s. capitol. provide security at federal courts. transport federal prisoners. control property that has been seized by federal court order.
The U.S. has main responsibility. The protection of the president, the president-elect, and their close family members is the U.S. Marshals Service's primary responsibility.
What is the main purpose of the US Marshals?The U.S. Marshals Service is responsible for a variety of tasks, including guarding the federal judiciary, catching federal fugitives, managing and disposing of confiscated property obtained by criminals through illegal means, housing and transporting federal prisoners, and running the Witness Security Program.
The U.S. Marshals Service's objective is to uphold federal laws and support nearly all aspects of the federal justice system by maintaining the safety of judges and other court employees, securing federal court facilities, and engaging in the detention of federal inmates.
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FILL IN THE BLANK in the context of the processes that produce changes in populations, ______refers to the actual level of_______ childbearing for an individual or a population. group of answer choices fecundity emigration fertility gentrification
In the context of the processes that produce changes in populations, Fertility refers to the actual level of childbearing for an individual or a population.
The actual rate of childbearing for an individual or a population is called fertility. The number of women of reproductive age is the most important biological element affecting the degree of fertility in a culture (usually between ages 15 and 45).
The general health and dietary status of women of childbearing age are two additional biological factors that affect fertility. The responsibilities that women can play in a community and widely held beliefs about what makes for the "ideal" family size are social factors that affect the degree of fertility.
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___________ handle tactical decisions.
Clerical
Knowledge workers
Lower-level managers
Middle managers
A manager who oversees, manages, and directs the operations employees is known as a front line or lower level manager decision.
For instance, they are referred to be supervisors in a manufacturing organization because they watch over the work of their direct reports and make sure that they carry out their tasks properly. Lower level managers primarily focus on managing and leading employees who carry out a business's everyday operations. Additionally, they delegate responsibilities to their direct reports, guarantee that productions proceed as scheduled, and keep an eye on workers' day-to-day activities. The development of tactical strategies is under the purview of middle managers. Senior management post holders are known as middle managers. Middle managers' primary responsibilities are to develop a plan for The business is making sure that it focuses on its objectives. The company's difficulties should be quickly resolved by the middle managers as well decision.
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which of the following properties of an aws resource is sufficient and necessary to uniquely identify it across all of aws? a) arn b) region and arn c) arn and account number d) depends on the resource used
To uniquely identify it across all of aws is from the a) ARN.
What is AWS ARN?AWS resources are uniquely identified by their Amazon Resource Names (ARNs). We require an ARN when you need to define a resource unambiguously across all of AWS, such as in IAM rules, Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS) tags, and API requests. A specific resource in the Amazon Web Services (AWS) public cloud is identified by an Amazon Resource Name, which is a file naming standard. An administrator may manage and use AWS objects and policies across AWS products and API calls with the use of ARNs, which are unique to AWS.
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What would be a useful realistic mutation for humans that you wish you had? And do you think a mutation like that would spread due to natural selection or would it quickly disappear
A genetic mutation that can prevent heart disease or diabetes in spite of a history of smoking or being overweight is an example of a favorable genetic change.
What is genetic mutation?The DNA sequence of a gene is altered to generate a different result, which is known as a genetic mutation. The DNA sequence of that gene is permanently altered.
For humans to develop, which is the process of change over a number of generations, genetic variances are crucial. In one person, a spontaneous genetic mutation takes place.
The genetic mutation of that person is passed down through generations (hereditary) to their offspring. If the mutation increases a person's likelihood of survival or immunity to disease, it starts to be handed down through generations and disseminated throughout the community.
The mutation transforms from a gene variant into a normal gene as it is passed down from generation to generation and becomes a normal component of the human genome.
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In within-subject experiments, each subject's performance is compared with his or her performance during a ______.
In within-subject experiments, the subject's behavior during treatment is compared with their behavior during a Baseline period.
Within-subject experiments rely on comparing the subject's behavior during the treatment period to their behavior during the Baseline period. This comparison is essential for determining the effectiveness of the treatment, as it allows researchers to accurately gauge the changes in the subject's behavior.
Baseline periods are carefully constructed to establish the normal, non-treatment related behavior of the subject, and typically consist of multiple testing sessions, spread over a period of days or weeks. When setting up a within-subject experiment, it is important to carefully plan the Baseline period in order to provide accurate and reliable results.
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a type of single-subject design in which the effect of the treatment is demonstrated by how closely the behavior matches a criterion that is systematically altered
Changing Criterion Design is a type of single-subject design in which the effect of the treatment is demonstrated by how closely the behavior matches a criterion that is systematically altered.
The changing criterion design (CCD) makes use of incremental benchmarks to modify a single behaviour that is already part of a person's repertoire. The concept has been applied to behaviours where an abrupt, significant rise or drop may be challenging to attain or unwelcome; as a result, incremental movements in the direction of the intended aim are used.
The CCD is flexible in the behaviours and populations it may be applied to, but it is especially suitable for the acceleration and deceleration of a behaviour. With the CCD, a baseline, along with each criterion and its succeeding criterion, serve as measurements between the lack and existence of the independent variable.
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there is absolutely no information about who is responsible for the content of the website on a ymyl topic. T/F
True there is absolutely no information about is responsible for the content of the website on a ymyl topic.
The lowest rating should be used for any of the following types of content on pages that might appear informative.Content that is demonstrably inaccurate.YMYL content that contradicts well-established expert consensus.Debunked or unsubstantiated conspiracy theories.Experience, authority,reliability this is an important quality characteristic.Quantity and quality of main content.The rating should be based on the landing page of the task URL.Don't think about the query when assigning a page quality rating to the LP. Some results do not have a page quality slider. If a results block doesn't have a page quality rating slider,you don't need to provide a page quality rating.YMYL websites require a high degree of trust,so they generally need satisfactory information about who is responsible for the site's content.
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Can you think of any other risks involved in opening Charity:Water?
The charity was given a 4 out of 4 star rating by Charity Navigator as of July 2021. As of July 2021, the charity had a total score of 91.95 out of 100, a "Accountability & Transparency" score of 100, and a "Financial" grade of 88.62.
What is the risk of Charity Water?Due to its 93% rating, this charity received a four-star rating. If this organisation shares your interests and principles, giving can be done with confidence.Scott Harrison is the current director of charity: water, which was founded in 2006. Harrison has been profiled in issues of Forbes Magazine Impact 30, Fortune Magazine's 40 Under 40, and Fast Company's 100 Most Creative People in Business.We made a bold commitment when water began: 100% of public donations would go directly toward funding clean water projects. If a donor paid $100 using a credit card and we only received $97, we would make up the $3 and send the entire $100 to provide clean water for those in need. We would even pay back credit card fees.To learn more about Charity Water refer to:
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The necessary and proper clause in Article 1, Section 8, of the Constitution extends : the enumerated federal powers. Which of the following are among the enumerated powers granted to the national government by the constitution?
The necessary and proper clause in Article 1, Section 8, of the Constitution extends : the enumerated federal powers. The powers like- Taxing Power, Spending Power, To borrow Money on the credit of the United States are among the enumerated powers granted to the national government by the constitution. The correct option is A, B and C.
The power to raise and support a military, regulate interstate commerce, levy taxes, and "make all Laws which shall be necessary and proper for carrying into Execution the foregoing Powers, and all other Powers vested by this Constitution in the Government of the United States" were all granted to Congress under Section 8.
The complete Question is-
The necessary and proper clause in Article 1, Section 8, of the Constitution extends : the enumerated federal powers. Which of the following are among the enumerated powers granted to the national government by the constitution?
Options-
A)Taxing Power B) Spending Power C)To borrow Money on the credit of the United States D) Controlling Army.
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why is line a primary means of visual communication? everyone can make a line. lines are inherently symbolic. it is a basic means of recording and documenting ideas. lines do not have to be explained with text.
Option (b), It is a fundamental tool for jotting down ideas and serving as a major form of visual communication.
What kind of communication is sometimes referred to as "visual"?Any form of non-verbal communication that uses sight is referred to as "visual communication." Any action that uses a variety of gestures, symbols, or postures to communicate a message or deliver information is included. It is referred to as viscom by certain people.
What type of communication employs images?The process of visually communicating and resolving issues via the use of typography, photography, iconography, and illustration is known as graphic design. In spite of the fact that the profession is frequently referred to as "graphic design," it is actually thought of as a part of visual communication and communication design.
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your aunt has a fear that makes it difficult for her to leave her home. she feels trapped and is unable to work or engage in any kind of activity that requires going outside of her home. you are not surprised when you find out your aunt is diagnosed with . trypanophobia odontophobia agoraphobia a specific phobia
Your aunt struggles to leave her house due to a fear she has. She is unable to work or participate in any activity that requires leaving her home because she feels trapped. When you learn that your aunt has an option(c)i.e, agoraphobia, you are not shocked.
Agoraphobia is a tension ailment that makes one intensely afraid of being beaten, inadequate to depart, or unable to internationally recognized signal requesting help. People accompanying agoraphobia commonly avoid unfamiliar places and painful situations lacking fear and anxiety, including either open or closed extents.
The following are risk determinants for expanding agoraphobia are having phobias or panic attacks, bearing harsh life occurrences, aforementioned falling a loved one, grasping assaulted, or being harmed, prone to nervousness or anxiety, displaying overdone concern and fear when experiencing panic attacks and a family member suffering from agoraphobia.
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Auditoriums and theaters are considered similar types of public assembly venues with similar types of events.TRUE OR FALSE
True, Auditoriums and theaters are definitely considered similar types of public assembly venues with similar types of events.
A public assembly venue is an indoor or outdoor space created to host a particular activity or event, such as tennis courts, velodromes, curling rinks, horse and dog racetracks, and automotive speedways. An auditorium is a space created especially to accommodate a performance or sizable gathering. On the other hand, a theater is a structure with an auditorium and other amenities for staging live stage plays, musicals, or other dramatic entertainment. Any building, public or private, that is intended to house a gathering of people. Acts, performances, and experiences are services.
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Participants in a free market economy depend on which of the following for their economic security?
The American free-market system depends on:
1. The American tax rate is lower than in European nations.
2. Individuals seek profits for themselves (this is the answer) and their companies.
3. Private transactions determine the allocation of economic costs and benefits.
Participants in a free market economy depend on 2. Individuals seek profits for themselves and their companies.
A capitalist economy is a sort of free market economy in which the profit motive drives all commerce and forces enterprises to work as efficiently as possible in order to maintain market share.
Private individuals own firms in capitalism, and these business owners (i.e., capitalists) hire workers in exchange for income or compensation. The government has no role in regulating or supporting markets or enterprises in such an economy.
In actuality, no country is entirely capitalist, and no country has a purely free market; there is some form of mix of markets and regulation, with different countries falling on different ends of the spectrum.
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Which dog is demonstrating stimulus discrimination in the following scenarios?
A. Chug, a fearful dog after growing up without a home, gradually became more trusting of people after being exposed to them. Then, Chug suddenly returns to his fearful behavior.
B. Sparky recognizes the sound of the can opener and excitedly goes to his bowl when he hears it.
C. Cookie cowers when she hears the pop of fireworks, but not when she hears the pop of lightning.
D. Brodie associates the sound of the doorbell with guests and excitedly goes to the door when he hears it, but he also does so when he hears a game show contestant ring a bell to answer a question.
E. Princess used to sit on command, but since her owner stopped giving her a treat for it, she no longer does.
Option C is correct, Cookie cowers when she hears the pop of fireworks, but not when she hears the pop of lightning demonstrating stimulus discrimination.
Both classical and operant conditioning make use of the concept of stimulus discrimination. It entails having the capacity to tell one stimulus from similarly-stimulated ones. In both situations, it refers to only reacting to particular stimuli and avoiding similar stimuli. The student will only get a response when the right flashcard is selected, for example, if the teacher asks a question and offers the student a choice of four distinct flashcards to choose the answer from. The discriminative stimulus is the right flashcard.
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Question 3
Which of the following questions collect nominal qualitative data? Select all that apply.
O Did anyone recommend our restaurant to you today?
O How likely are you to recommend this restaurant to a friend?
O Is this your first time dining at this restaurant?
O Have you heard of our frequent diner program?
Is this your first time dining at this establishment? The correct response for this question on nominal qualitative data is the aforementioned answer.
Qualitative and quantitative data: what are they?Numbers are employed to show in detail about the quantitative data, which are measures of values or counts. Arithmetic variables are the subjects of quantitative data (e.g. how many; how much; or how often). Qualitative data can be illustrated by a title, logo, or number code and are measures of "types."
Which three qualitative are there?There are numerous qualitative research methodologies. Depending on what you want to accomplish, you should use a particular approach. However, focus group discussions (FGDs), in-depth interviews, and observation are the three most frequently employed qualitative research techniques.
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Which of the following is NOT an example of legislation guiding professionals in recreational sports?
The Equal Pay Act of 1963 is NOT an example of legislation guiding recreational sports professionals.
The text of the Equal Pay Act of 1963 (Pub. L. 88-38) (EPA), as amended, appears at section 206 of Volume 29 of the United States Code (d).
The Equal Pay Act (EPA), which is part of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938, as amended (FLSA), and is administered and enforced by the EEOC, prohibits sex-based wage discrimination between men and women who work in the same establishment and perform jobs that require substantially equal skill, effort, and responsibility under similar working conditions.
Cross references to the EPA as enacted are italicized after the section heading. Additional Equal Pay Act of 1963, as amended, provisions are included in volume 29 of the United States Code.
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a full irb committee meeting is convened and one agenda item is a new research proposal to evaluate how mothers interact with their children with learning disabilities. the inclusion criteria require the children to be a minimum of five years of age. the protocol requires the mother of the child to look at the child without any expression and not to talk to the child for three minutes. the committee considers that the risks to the children could be more than minimal, but the proposal does not include adequate information to make a final determination regarding the risks. which of the following best describes how the irb should proceed?
IRB should proceed to put the protocol on hold and request that the researcher provide the necessary data so that the full board can review it at the upcoming scheduled meeting.
The Institutional Review Board, or IRB is also known as an independent ethics committee, and its main responsibilities include ensuring that research methods are morally acceptable and safeguarding the rights and welfare of human subjects used in its institution's studies. There is nothing more that the IRB can do regarding the report as long as the research was ethical, approved, and given parental consent because the incident has been handled according to protocol and the child is no longer upset.
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Chinese typically do not draw a hard line between business and personal relationships in the way that many Westerners do.true or false
TRUE. Chinese typically do not draw a hard line between business and personal relationships in the way that many Westerners because they take personal relationships as important as work.
In Chinese culture, the concept of guanxi is used to characterize a person's social network of profitable personal and professional connections. The phrase refers to a closed system of ties that is somewhat comparable to the term "old boy's network" in the West. The characters guan and xi both indicate "closed" and "system," respectively. Since "connections" and "relationships" don't accurately convey the relevance of a person's guanxi to most personal and professional transactions in China, the pinyin romanization of guanxi is more frequently used in Western media. In contrast to the West, guanxi relationships virtually never begin with just formal encounters; they also need spending time getting to know one another over tea, dinner, or other social gatherings.
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which of the following is an example of a social value-based regulation that can impose a barrier between some willing workers and other willing employers? select the correct answer below: a local government not allowing liquor stores be open on sundays bureaucratic red tape at the federal level a local government requiring that a new business obtain multiple permits a municipal government with strict local zoning laws
A municipal authority forbidding booze businesses from opening on Sundays- is an illustration of a rule based on societal values that may act as a barrier to some companies and employees who are prepared to work together
The value that stakeholders obtain as a result of changes in their lives is known as social value. Prices on the market only partially reflect its value. The Principles of Social Value offer the fundamental building blocks for anyone who wishes to make choices that raise equality, enhance wellbeing, and increase environmental sustainability by taking a broader concept of value into account.
A social entrepreneur who wants to create social value might use the Principles to assist them tell their story of how people change. This report covers qualitative, quantitative, comparative, and environmental change information in connection to how it impacts people's lives. For the past 250 years, it has been accepted as true that businesses can fulfill social welfare goals when they prioritize profit-maximizing goals.
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In the ethical decision-making process, creativity in identifying options is also known as _____.a. moral imaginationb. descriptive imaginationc. intentional deliberationd. normative imagination
(A) Moral imagination is the capacity to see choices while coming to moral conclusions.
What is moral imagination?According to philosopher Mark Johnson, moral imagination entails imagining all potential outcomes in a certain circumstance in order to address an ethical dilemma.
Johnson underlines that upholding moral principles frequently calls for more than just moral fortitude.
The ability to recognize options when making moral decisions is known as moral imagination.
Moral bravery requires teamwork and is essential to business culture.
By taking the time to think about the various angles of a circumstance or decision, the concept of moral imagination can help the leader and follower.
Therefore, (A) moral imagination is the capacity to see choices while coming to moral conclusions.
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Which of the following statements about automatic processing or effortful processing is true?
A) Effortful processing does not require conscious awareness
B) Effortful processing makes other processing more difficult
C) Automatic processing requires little mental effort
D) Automatic processing does not improve with practice
E) Effortful processing is affected by intelligence
Automatic processing requires little mental effort, is the correct statement about automatic processing or effortful processing.
Two distinct information processing methods are recognized by cognitive psychologists. They have been viewed as cooperating in a dual-process account of human cognition and are commonly known as automatic processing and regulated processing. In other words, parallel activities including automatic and regulated processing can run side by side. Our capacity to carry out various kinds of attentional tasks has frequently been the subject of research on automated and regulated processing. Researchers have, however, also looked into how these ideas connect to other cognitive skills including language learning and memory. It is crucial to define what processing information entails before delving into these two ideas. According to how something is originally processed, information can be kept in memory and people are said to think about a number of the things they can see and hear in their environment. Later, those memories may affect how information is interpreted in different situations.
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the interaction of aggregate supply and aggregate demand result in which of the following?
-levels of output
-levels of checkable deposits
-levels of employment
-levels of income
-levels of reserves
The interaction of aggregate supply and aggregate demand result in-
-levels of outputlevels of employment-levels of incomeA model that demonstrates how total supply and total demand interact at the macroeconomic level is the aggregate demand/aggregate supply model, which also explains how total supply and total demand are determined for the economy.In other words, the real GDP, aggregate supply is the total amount of output that businesses will produce and sell.Consumers would be willing to purchase a large number of units at a relatively low price level for output, but firms would have little incentive to produce. The equilibrium point is reached when the price level for outputs rises, at which point aggregate supply and demand are equal in magnitude.In this instance, point represents the equilibrium point.A price level of 90 and an output level of 8,800 are used in this sentence.the sum of a country's total demand forTo know more about supply here
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As a result of the interplay between aggregate supply and aggregate demand,
-levels of output and employment
-earnings levels
The aggregate demand/aggregate supply model, which also describes how total supply and total demand are determined for the economy, is a model that depicts how total supply and total demand interact at the macroeconomic level.
In other words, aggregate supply is the entire quantity of product produced and sold by enterprises.
Consumers would be eager to buy a huge number of units at a cheap price for output, but enterprises would have no motivation to produce. When the price level for outputs climbs to the point where aggregate supply and demand are equal in magnitude, the equilibrium point is attained.
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nicholas, a nine-year-old child is a person who has a specific phobia of dogs (cynophobia). when nicholas is playing in his front yard and he sees a dog, even on a leash he has a phobic reaction. nicholas begins to sweat, his heart pounds in his chest, he feels like he cannot breathe, and has blurred vision. which of the following is the best description of nicholas's phobic reaction to the presence of dogs near him?
Nicholas's phobic reaction to being around dogs is best characterized as a panic attack.
When do you think you might be exhibiting a panic attack?An abrupt, intense anxiety is the hallmark of a panic attack. One of the outward manifestations of panic episodes is shaking. engrossed in one's own thoughts.
When there is no immediate danger or evident cause, a panic attack is a brief episode of intense dread accompanied by considerable physical symptoms. Having a panic attack can be really terrifying. When panic attacks occur, you could feel as though you're losing control, having a heart attack, or even about to die.
What precipitated panic attacks?A significant life stressor like the death event serious illness of a loved one. a traumatic event, like a major accident or sexual assault. major life changes, such as being divorced or having a child. smoking or drinking a lot of coffee.
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this game plan reflects the company's awareness of how and where it should compete and against whom the competition should take place. it can be stated this organization has an established .
Strategy is shows company's awareness of how and where it should compete and against whom the competition should take place.
What constitutes a strategy's five components?Arenas, Differentiators, Vehicles, Staging, and Economic Logic are among these five strategic components. James Fredrickson and Donald Hambrick, two experts in strategy, created this concept.
What does strategy serve to accomplish?A strategy is "The direction an organization pursues with the goal of achieving future commercial success," according to one definition. A company's strategy outlines how it plans to use its resources, which might include both material and financial assets as well as the skills and knowledge of its workforce.
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is the process of repeatedly verbalizing or thinking about a piece of information. Your short term memory is able to hold information about about 20 seconds. However, this time can be increased to about 30 seconds by using Maintenance Rehearsal.
Maintenance Rehearsal is the process of repeatedly verbalizing or thinking about a piece of information.
The process of repeatedly verbalizing or thinking about a piece of information is known as maintenance rehearsal. Your short term memory can hold information for approximately 20 seconds. This time, however, can be reduced to about 30 seconds by using Maintenance Rehearsal. The process of repeatedly repeating the number is known as maintenance rehearsal. It will not help the information stay in long term memory, but it will help it stay in short term memory for a little longer.
Maintenance rehearsal is a type of memory encoding and a shallow form of information processing that involves focusing on an object without regard for its meaning or association with other objects. Repetition of a series of numbers, for example, is a type of maintenance rehearsal.
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Capital Punishment by State
Select a state and investigate its capital punishment laws.
For each state that uses capital punishment, find information on the number of executions in the last year, the number of people currently on death row, and the murder rate for the state. Summarize any current controversies regarding capital punishment in the state.
For each state that does not use capital punishment, investigate the history of capital punishment to determine when and why the capital punishment is no longer used and find out the current murder rate for the state.
I will investigate the capital punishment laws of California.
California has had a moratorium on executions since 2006, when the state Supreme Court declared the death penalty unconstitutional. In 2016, California voters passed Proposition 66, which reinstated the death penalty and set new rules for how executions should be carried out. As of 2021, there are 744 people on death row in California, but no executions have been carried out since 2006. The murder rate in California in 2020 was 4.9 per 100,000 people, which is lower than the national average of 5.3 per 100,000 people.
What is the controversy over capital punishment?There are currently several controversies surrounding capital punishment in California. In 2019, Governor Gavin Newsom issued a moratorium on executions, citing concerns about the fairness of the death penalty system.
This moratorium was challenged in court, but the California Supreme Court upheld it in 2020. Additionally, there is debate over the cost of the death penalty system in California, which is estimated to be $5 billion since 1978. Finally, there is ongoing debate over the morality of capital punishment, with many arguing that it is an inhumane form of punishment.
Therefore, the correct answer is as given above
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please describe your past academic experiences and your reasons for wishing to enroll at umd at this point in your academic career
We have to describe our past academic experiences and our reasons for wishing to enroll at the University of Maryland at this point in our academic career in form of an essay.
I entered Pennsylvania State University with the intention of majoring in biology after finishing high school. My academic performance suffered as a result of my anxiety and fear of living away from home. I quit and returned to Virginia to enroll in a community college before transferring to a better school. I performed well at the college, maintaining a stellar grade point average because I felt at ease in my hometown. Every day, I dreamed about living the college experience, including joining a sorority, supporting college sports teams, participating in clubs, and other things. For that dream to come true, I worked very hard in school. But during my final semester of college, I found out that my parents were divorcing and that the family business was suffering as a result.
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