HELPP PLEASE !!!!!!

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  40 : 110

Step-by-step explanation:

There are a number of ways you can go at this. One of my favorite is to consider the value of a "ratio unit." Here, a total of 4+11 = 15 "ratio units" represent the total to be divided: 150. So the value of each one is ...

  150/15 = 10

Then the division is ...

  4 : 11 = 10·4 : 10·11 = 40 : 110

_____

Alternate solution

Let x represent the larger share. Then the ratio is ...

  (150 -x) : x = 4 : 11

Cross-multiplying gives ...

  11(150 -x) = 4x

  1650 = 15x . . . . . add 11x, simplify

  110 = x . . . . . . . . . divide by 15; the larger share

  150-x = 150-110 = 40 . . . . . . the smaller share

The division is 40 : 110.

Answer:

y=-x-2

Step-by-step explanation:

y-y1=m(x-x1)

y-(-3)=-1(x-1)

y+3=-1(x-1)

y=-x+1-3

y=-x-2

Answer:

d

Step-by-step explanation:

Dividing by a fraction is the same as multiplying by the reciprocal of the fraction.

Answer:

d madam

Step-by-step explanation:

edge 2021

Answer:

the second option

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: negative 2 (-2)

Step-by-step explanation:-6+4=-2

Answer:

−2

Step-by-step explanation:

−6 − (−4)

= −6 − (−4)

= −6 + 4

= −2

Answer:

k+7=34

k=27

Step-by-step explanation:

what grade is this for?

hope this helps

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

if you draw the situation you get a right triangle with

hypothenuse Edelton Walton and the Park City as the vertex of the right angle

Michael went 38+25= 63 miles

Landon went the length of the hypothenuse so use Pythagorean theorem

√38²+25² ≅45.49miles

Michael went 63-45.5 ≅17.5 further

Answer:

14-11.76 = 2.24

2.24×100

14 = 16%

since, the discount percentage is 16%

Answer:

21/72 = 0.2917 = 29.17% probability that a 6 is rolled both times

Step-by-step explanation:

Two have faces numbered 1,2,3,4,5, and 6

So for these two, each with 1/4 probability of being chosen, the probability of rolling two six is given by:

(1/6)^2 = 1/36

So

[tex]p_A = 2 \times \frac{1}{4} \times \frac{1}{36} = \frac{1}{72}[/tex]

One has faces numbered 2,2,4,4, 6 and 6;

The probability of rolling 2 faces six with this dice is:

(2/6)^2 = 4/36

This dice has 1/4 probability of being chosen. So

[tex]p_B = \frac{1}{4} \times \frac{4}{36} = \frac{1}{36}[/tex]

One has all six faces numbered 6.

The probabilityu of rolling two six is given by:

(6/6)^2 = 1^2 = 1

This dice has 1/4 probability of being chosen. So

[tex]p_C = \frac{1}{4} \times 1 = \frac{1}{4}[/tex]

Calculate the probability that a 6 is rolled both times

[tex]p = p_A + p_B + p_C = \frac{1}{72} + \frac{1}{36} + \frac{1}{4} = \frac{1 + 2 + 18}{72} = \frac{21}{72}[/tex]

21/72 = 0.2917 = 29.17% probability that a 6 is rolled both times

Answer: 53.5 seconds

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

gradient=

[tex] \frac{ - 8 - ( - 3)}{ - 3 - 2} = \frac{ - 8 + 3}{ - 5} = \frac{ - 5}{ - 5} = 1[/tex]

Answer:

c and d

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The slope of y=x is 1

Step-by-step explanation:

Slope = 1

Answer:

it would be C do to the fact that 0.5 x 8=4

Answer:

7/4 +1/6 +X=15/2

1/6+X=15/2-7/4

1/6+X=30/4-7/4

X=23/4 - 1/6

X= 138-4/24

134/24

5.58333

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

6 4/12

Step-by-step explanation:

1 3/ 12+ 1/12 + 6 2/12 = 7 6/12 or 7 1/2

Answer:

Gary

I have no idea how to explain this but I do know for a fact that the answer is Gary.

Answer:

i need to know the answer choices

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-25 is correct I think

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

kapag napag aralan mo yan beh malalaman mo yung sagot kapit lang tiwala ka lang pag aralan mo tignan mo malalaman mo yung sagot jan wag kang magagalit dahil totoo yung sinbi ko cge keep safe and god bless..

Answer:

.....

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

3 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

3 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

370-165=205

205-100=105

105/35=3

Here we will show you step-by-step with detailed explanation how to calculate 246 divided by 7 using long division.

Before you continue, note that in the problem 246 divided by 7, the numbers are defined as follows:

246 = dividend

7 = divisor

Step 1:

Start by setting it up with the divisor 7 on the left side and the dividend 246 on the right side like this:

7 ⟌ 2 4 6

Step 2:

The divisor (7) goes into the first digit of the dividend (2), 0 time(s). Therefore, put 0 on top:

0

7 ⟌ 2 4 6

Step 3:

Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (7 x 0 = 0) and write that answer below the dividend.

0

7 ⟌ 2 4 6

0

Step 4:

Subtract the result in the previous step from the first digit of the dividend (2 - 0 = 2) and write the answer below.

0

7 ⟌ 2 4 6

- 0

2

Step 5:

Move down the 2nd digit of the dividend (4) like this:

0

7 ⟌ 2 4 6

- 0

2 4

Step 6:

The divisor (7) goes into the bottom number (24), 3 time(s). Therefore, put 3 on top:

0 3

7 ⟌ 2 4 6

- 0

2 4

Step 7:

Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (7 x 3 = 21) and write that answer at the bottom:

0 3

7 ⟌ 2 4 6

- 0

2 4

2 1

Step 8:

Subtract the result in the previous step from the number written above it. (24 - 21 = 3) and write the answer at the bottom.

0 3

7 ⟌ 2 4 6

- 0

2 4

- 2 1

3

Step 9:

Move down the last digit of the dividend (6) like this:

0 3

7 ⟌ 2 4 6

- 0

2 4

- 2 1

3 6

Step 10:

The divisor (7) goes into the bottom number (36), 5 time(s). Therefore put 5 on top:

0 3 5

7 ⟌ 2 4 6

- 0

2 4

- 2 1

3 6

Step 11:

Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (7 x 5 = 35) and write the answer at the bottom:

0 3 5

7 ⟌ 2 4 6

- 0

2 4

- 2 1

3 6

3 5

Step 12:

Subtract the result in the previous step from the number written above it. (36 - 35 = 1) and write the answer at the bottom.

0 3 5

7 ⟌ 2 4 6

- 0

2 4

- 2 1

3 6

- 3 5

1

You are done, because there are no more digits to move down from the dividend.

The answer is the top number and the remainder is the bottom number.

Therefore, the answer to 246 divided by 7 calculated using Long Division is:

35

1 Remainder

Mark as brainlist

Answer:

I believe it is c but don't quote me on it

Answer:

6 times

Step-by-step explanation:

18 / 3 = 6

Answer:

6

Step-by-step explanation:

Solve:

6*3= 18

Check your work:

18 divided by 3

OR

18 divided by 6

Hope this helps!

Answer:

I belive the answer to this is D or A

Step-by-step explanation:

But I strongly think its A

Answer:

The answer is A

Answer:

i think it is a

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

y-intercept=5

x-intercept=-2

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the y intercept, plug in 0 for x. So you get 10(0)-4y=-20. Simplify, and clear out the negatives on both sides because they cancel each other out. 4y=20 would be your final equation. y=5.

To find the x intercept, you plug in 0 for y this time. The equation is 10x-4(0)=-20. Simplify to get, 10x=-20. You cannot remove the negative because there isn't a negative sign on the 10x. -20/10 is -2.

please mark brainliest it will help me a lot.