:')) Help me please-

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

The slope of a line passing through the two points P=(x1,y1) and Q=(x2,y2) is given by m=y2−y1x2−x1.

We have that x1=3, y1=2, x2=0, y2=−1.

Plug the given values into the formula for slope: m=(−1)−(2)(0)−(3)=−3−3=1.

Now, the y-intercept is b=y1−m⋅x1 (or b=y2−m⋅x2, the result is the same).

b=2−(1)⋅(3)=−1.

Finally, the equation of the line can be written in the form y=mx+b.

y=x−1.

Answer:

The slope of the line is m=1.

The equation of the line in the slope-intercept form is y=x−1.

The equation of the line in the point-slope form is y−2=1(x−3).

The equation of the line in the point-slope form is y+1=1x.

The general equation of the line is x−y−1=0.

The solution is Option C.

The system of equations are same and they have infinite number of points

The equation of a line is expressed as y = mx + b where m is the slope and b is the y-intercept

And y - y₁ = m ( x - x₁ )

y = y-coordinate of second point

y₁ = y-coordinate of point one

m = slope

x = x-coordinate of second point

x₁ = x-coordinate of point one

The slope m = ( y₂ - y₁ ) / ( x₂ - x₁ )

Given data ,

Let the equation of line be represented as A

Now , the value of A is

Let the first equation be P

2x - y = 8   be equation (1)

Let the second equation be Q

4x - 2y = 16  be equation (2)

Now , the slope of the line is m = ( y₂ - y₁ ) / ( x₂ - x₁ ) = 2

Substituting the values in the equation , we get

Divide equation (2) by 2 , we get

2x - y = 8   be equation (1)

Therefore , the value of equation (1) = equation (2)

Hence , there are infinite number of solutions to the equations

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Answer;

I think you haven't inserted the actual question.

Otherwise it could be almost any number.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

ĉu vi scias ion, ni supozeble ne scias tion, jes

Answer:

[tex]60[/tex] times

Step-by-step explanation:

There are [tex]6+4+3+2=15[/tex] marbles in total. Out of those, [tex]3[/tex] are blue, so the probability of pulling a blue marble is [tex]\frac{3}{15}=\frac{1}{5}[/tex]. However, this is only the probability of pulling a blue marble when [tex]1[/tex] marble is pulled at random. Therefore, we can expect a blue marble to be pulled [tex]\frac{1}{5}*300=60[/tex] times if [tex]1[/tex] marble is pulled [tex]300[/tex] times at random. Hope this helps!

Answer:

25

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

2

Step-by-step explanation:

sorry if wrong not that good at math

Answer:

5k2

Step-by-step explanation:

5+3=8, 8-4=4, 4+1=5

Answer:

I love algebra anyways

The ans is in the picture with the  steps how i got it

(hope this helps can i plz have brainlist :D hehe)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

yes

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

because the circle is closed it has to be more than or equal to and because of the way the line is going it has to be greater than and the dot is on -1 so the answer is A

Answer:

B). 32

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

look at the attachments

A) x<11

B) x<-5

C) x<5

D) x<-11

Answer:

672 dollars i think

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Perimeter of a square=circumference of circle

4×22=2πr

44=πr

r=14

Area of circle=πr2

22/7×14×14

28×22

616

Answer:

176cm²

Step-by-step explanation:

Side of square = 22cm

Perimeter of square = 88cm

Circumference of circle = perimeter of square

2π r = 88cm

2 x 22/7 x r = 88cm

44/7 x r = 88cm

r = 88 x 7/44

r = 14cm

Area of circle = π x r x r

= 22/7 x 14 x 14

= 44 x 4

= 176 cm²

Answer:

,

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

5 sundaes

Step-by-step explanation:

find the GCF: 5

so 3x5 would be 15

15 mint.

25-15=10

10/2=5

boom

There are [tex]$5$[/tex] sundaes will be vanilla ice-cream.

Learn more about Probability

Probability is the likelihood that an event will occur and is calculated by dividing the number of favorable outcomes by the total number of possible outcomes.

It is given that, there is [tex]$25$[/tex] sundaes with mint, chocolate and vanilla flavor ice cream out of these [tex]$\frac{3}{5}$[/tex] of the sundaes are mint flavor and [tex]$\frac{1}{2}$[/tex] are chocolate flavor.

We have to find the number for sundaes will be vanilla flavor ice-cream.

So,

We have to multiply [tex]$3$[/tex] by [tex]$5$[/tex] and solve it.

So,

[tex]$3\times 5=15$[/tex]

There are [tex]$15$[/tex] mints flavor.

Now,

Divide total number of sundaes with all flavor ice-cream by calculate value for mint.

We get,

[tex]$25-15=10$[/tex]

Multiply the above calculate value by no. of remaining sundaes for chocolate ice-cream.

So,

[tex]$10\times \frac{1}{2}=5$[/tex]

Hence, there are [tex]$5$[/tex] sundaes will be vanilla flavor ice-cream.

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Answer:

b = 17.55

Step-by-step explanation:

a^2 + b^2 = c^2

4^2 + b^2 = 18^2

16 + b^2 = 324

-16              -16

b^2 = 308

square root them

b = 17.55

let me know if it is correct!

Step-by-step explanation:

4^2 + h^2 = 18^2

16 +h^2 = 324

h^2 = 308

h = √308

h = 17.5499 ft

Answer:

49%

Step-by-step explanation:

0.7 ^ 2 = 0.49.

0.49 = 49%.

Answer:

1 and 1/4 liters of paint are needed for one door

Step-by-step explanation:

You can eliminate each answer choice out. For '4/5 liters' you know that if that amount was used, it wouldn't be reasonable since it would mean that the more was used for the other 3/5 door. 3 and 1.5 would be too much since it is over 2 liters. 2 liters wouldn't be logical since you paint 1 and 3/5 of a door and you only used 2 liters, no more or no less, basically what would you use for the other 3/5 door if this was the answer.

Hope this helps!

Answer:

Well on February it clearly shows it’s the highest at the point goes right across to 7:00 so the second one

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

it will be 3n+14

plzz mark me as a brainlist

Answer:

The answer should be -5.3

Step-by-step explanation:

Tell me if I'm wrong :)

Answer:

10 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

so bassicaly. see the x in all the factors u need to find what the value of x is.

or the arrows connect the x and a certain point in the shape. X = the digree or area of the point.

most likely the digree in the shape.

Answer:

7x+5x+7x+9=180

19x=180-9

171/19=9

x=9

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

C. The charges of the atoms that make up a water molecule makes them attracted to other water particles

The correct option is water particles are attracted to other water particles.

The term "cohesive forces" is a generic term for the collective intermolecular forces responsible for the bulk property of liquids resisting separation.

Specifically, these attractive forces exist between molecules of the same substance.

Given that, the water is a very cohesive substance.

We know that, the cohesive substance attracts the molecules of same kinds,

Cohesion means the attraction of molecules for other molecules of the same kind, and water molecules have strong cohesive forces because of their ability to form hydrogen bonds with one another.

Therefore,

The charges of the atoms that make up a water molecule makes them attracted to other water particles.

Hence, the correct option is water particles are attracted to other water particles.

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Answer:

The distribution is considered the mean in the problem

Step-by-step explanation:

$124.84 - $19.75 = $105.09

If you can consider what the mean is in math: How to Find the Mean. The mean is the average of the numbers. It is easy to calculate: add up all the numbers, then divide by how many numbers there are. In other words it is the sum divided by the count.

Answer:

12 times 5=60 not 70

Step-by-step explanation:

12(5+2y)=4y-(5-9y

60+24y=4y-5-9y

60+24y=-5y-5

29y+60=-5

29y=-65

y=-65/29 or y= about -2.38

brainliest please