What is the base and height of this parallelogram? *
12.2 cm
8 cm
10 cm

Answer:

1/8

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of getting tails on a single flip is 1/2.

Each of the flips is an independent event so you must multiply the probability of getting tails on each flip together.

So, your answer will look like this

[tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] x [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] x [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] ; which equals;

1/8

Answer:

1/8

Step-by-step explanation:

To calculate the probability you have to name all possible results first. If you mark a result of a single coin flip as  H  for heads or  T  for tails all results of  3  flips can be written as:

Ω = { ( H , H , H ) , ( H , H , T ) , ( H , T , H) , ( H , T , T ) , ( T , H , H ) , ( T , H , T ) , ( T ,T , H ) , ( T , T , T ) }

Each triplet contains results on  1st,  2 nd and  3 rd coin. So you can see that in total there are  8  elementary events in  Ω.

| Ω |  =  8

Now we have to define event  A  of getting tails three times.

The only elementary event which satisfies this condition is  ( T , T , T )  so we can write that:

A  =  { ( T, T , T ) }

| A |  =  1

Now according to the (classic) definition of probability we can write, that:

P ( A )  =  | A|/  | Ω |  =  1 /8

So finally we can write the answer:

The Probability of getting 3 tails in 3 coin flips is  1 /8 .

answer: since they are linear pair therefore

x+34+ 2x+2=180

3x+36=180

3x=144

x=48°

Step-by-step explanation:

second opinion: ex are useless forget them

Answer:

B) x=48

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope it helps

Answer:

32 ounces of fruits

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that :

Number of distinct fruits purcahed = 6

Number of ounces of each fruit = 5 1/3

The total ounces of fruits purchased :

(Number of distinct fruits purchased * Number of ounces of each fruit)

6 * 5 1/3 = 6 * 16/3

6 * 16/3 = (16 * 6) / 3 = 96 /3 = 32 ounces of fruits.

Answer:

(2/3, 13/3)    (Exactly one solution)

Step-by-step explanation:

Write these equations in a column:

 x+y=5

2x-y=-3

Note that we can eliminate y immediately by adding these two equations together. We get:

3x = 2, so that x = 2/3.

Substituting 2/3 for x in the first equation, we get:

2/3 + y = 5.  Clear out fractions by multiplying all three terms by 3:

2 + 3y = 15, or 3y = 13.  Then y = 13/3, and the solution is

(2/3, 13/3)      There is exactly one solution.

Answer:

Hi! The answer to your question is One Solution.

Step-by-step explanation:

☆*: .｡..｡.:*☆☆*: .｡..｡.:*☆☆*: .｡..｡.:*☆☆*: .｡..｡.:*☆

☆Brainliest is greatly appreciated!☆

Hope this helps!!

- Brooklynn Deka

Find the normal approximation to the chance that the face with six spots appears between 9, 10, or 11 times.

The exact chance that the face with six spots appears 9, 10, or 11 times?

my solution; in one roll of the die P(6 spots)=16 In 60 rolls of the die the expected number of times the face with 6 spots appears is given by E(X)=Mean=606=10 times.

SE(6spots)=SD=SQR(606⋅56)=2.8868

Applying the normal approximation to the chance that the face with six spots appears 10 times, I obtain the following: mean = 10

Standard deviation=2.8868

Using the continuity correction of 0.5 the following z-scores are found: z1=(9.5−10)/2.8868=−0.1732 and z2=(10.5−10)/2.8868=0.1732 Subtracting the cumulative probabilities for the two z-scores gives 0.5688−0.4312=0.1376 which is the approximate chance that the face with six spots appears 10 times. find the six spots appears between 9,10, or 11?

The exact chance that the face with six spots appears 10 times is found from

60C10(16)10×(56)50=0.137 find six spots appears 9, 10 or 11 times

Answer:

c. 1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

7 out of 14 contestants did last time, which is 1/2 of the contestants.  You would assume that the same proportion would qualify when there are 10 contestants, so you would assume that 1/2 of 10 would also qualify for the bonus round.

Answer:

[tex]x = 16[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex] \frac{1}{2} (x + 8) - 16 = - 4[/tex]

[tex] \frac{1}{2} x + 4 - 16 = - 4[/tex]

[tex] \frac{1}{2} x + 4 = 12[/tex]

[tex] \frac{1}{2} x = 8[/tex]

[tex]x = 16[/tex]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\frac{1}{2}(x + 8 ) - 16 = - 4\\\\\frac{1}{2}*x + 8*\frac{1}{2} - 16 = -4\\\\\frac{1}{2}x + 4 - 16 = -4\\\\\frac{1}{2}x -12 = -4[/tex]

Add 12 to both sides

[tex]\frac{1}{2}x = -4 + 12\\\\\frac{1}{2}x = 8\\[/tex]

Multiply both sides by 2

[tex]x = 8*2\\\\x = 16[/tex]

Explanation: The power rule tells us that when we have a power taken to another power, we keep the base the same and we multiply the exponents.

So we have p¹⁰ which is our final answer.

Answer:

Kim shears 1560 sheep in 26 days.

Her rate per day is 60.

Step-by-step explanation:

For 26 days:

[tex]\frac{5}{300} =\frac{26}{x} \\\\5x=7800\\x=1560[/tex]

For per day:

[tex]\frac{5}{300} =\frac{1}{x} \\\\5x=300\\x=60[/tex]

E⁣⁣⁣⁣xplanation i⁣⁣⁣⁣s i⁣⁣⁣⁣n a f⁣⁣⁣⁣ile

bit.[tex]^{}[/tex]ly/3a8Nt8n

Answer:

-30

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Total pencils: 17

Total rulers: 15

Step-by-step explanation:

"I will buy 15 pencils."

15 * 8p = £1.20

15 pencils

"Then I will buy as many rulers as possible."

£5 - £1.20 = £3.80

£3.80/30p = 12 remainder 20p

12 rulers

"With my change, I will buy more pencils.”

20p/8p = 2 remainder 4 p

2 pencils

Total pencils: 17

Total rulers: 15

Answer:

104

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

psst whats wrong??

Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer:

x              |            y

---------------------------

-2            |            11  

-1             |             4

0             |             3

1              |             2

2             |            -5

<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3

Brainliest?

<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3<3

Answer:

6.8*10^3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The answer is 6.8 × 103.

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps! Have a great rest of your day!

Answer: well if you listened on school you wouldn't need help sooo

Step-by-step explanation: LISTEN IN SCHOOL

Answer:

The mean of Trail Middle School wrestling team is greater by 20 pounds as compared to that of Burlington Middle School  wrestling team

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the value of absolute deviation in case of Trail Middle School wrestling team and Burlington Middle School  wrestling team is same. Hence, there will be no impact of it while determining the difference in mean deviation of both the team.

Thus, the difference in mean deviation is [tex]150-130 = 20[/tex]

The mean of Trail Middle School wrestling team is greater by 20 pounds as compared to that of Burlington Middle School  wrestling team

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

im guessing you need the equation of the circle?

plugging it into the standard circle equaition you would get (x+9)^2+y^2=1 and then you would just need to rearaange it into standard form

Answer:

The answer of this question is,

The answer of first question is point 2 and the answer of second question is point 3, look at the picture

Answer:

We can get 27 pieces of wire 3.6 cm long and have a piece 7/9 cm left over

Step-by-step explanation:

Find the "unit length" by dividing 1 m by 3.6 cm:

  1 m

-----------

3.6 cm

Recall that 1 m = 100 cm.  Multiply the following by the conversion factor 100 cm / 1 m:

  1 m            100 cm

----------- * ----------------- = 27,7777777...

3.6 cm            1 m

We can get 27 pieces of wire 3.6 cm long and have a piece 7/9 cm left over (verify this by dividing 7 by 9 on a calculator).

Answer:

Pieces can be cut = 1/3.6

Pieces can be cut = 0.27 m

100 cm = 1 m

0.27 m = 27 cm

Therefore,

The length remaining of wire is 27 cm (approximately)

You deposit $4000 in an account earning 4% interest compounded monthly. After 15 years, you will have approximately $7224.44 in the account.

To calculate the future value of an account with compound interest, we can use the formula:

Future Value = Principal * (1 + (Interest Rate / Number of Compounding Periods))^(Number of Compounding Periods * Time)

In this case, the principal (initial deposit) is $4000, the interest rate is 4% (or 0.04 as a decimal), and the compounding is done monthly, so there are 12 compounding periods in a year.

Substituting these values into the formula, we have:

Future Value = $4000 * (1 + (0.04 / 12))^(12 * 15)

Calculating this expression gives us:

Future Value ≈ $4000 * (1.003333)^180

Future Value ≈ $4000 * 1.806111

Future Value ≈ $7224.44

After 15 years, you will have approximately $7224.44 in the account, considering the given interest rate and compounding frequency.

For more such questions on deposit

https://brainly.com/question/29053212

#SPJ8

Answer:

my answer isn't on the list, but doing the math the median increased from 39 to 40, but the mean decreased from 49.16 to 45.57

Answer:

81=6x+3(vertically opposite angle are equal)

81-3=6x

78=6x

x=13°

hope it helps.

Answer: I think it's 1.80

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation: