According to the US Department of Health, which adult female is eating the number of calories in her diet that falls within the required range?

A.
Roberta, who eats 1200 calories a day

B.
Josephine, who eats 2600 calories a day

C.
Justine, who eats 3200 calories a day

D.
Victoria, who eats 1900 calories a day

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

According to the US Department of Health and Human Services, the recommended daily calorie intake for adult females ranges from 1,600 to 2,400 calories per day, depending on age, physical activity level, and other factors. Based on this information, the adult female who is eating the number of calories in her diet that falls within the required range is:

D. Victoria, who eats 1900 calories a day


Related Questions

Which of the following are examples of the Institute of Medicine's (IOM) recommendations for transforming the nursing profession? (3)
The nurse is a graduate with an associate degree and enrolls in a program to obtain a bachelor's degree in nursing without taking any additional courses
The nurse participates in a state-wide committee with other health professionals and legislators to address human trafficking
The nurse notes an increase in hospitalized clients who have heart failure and implements a research study addressing this issue

Answers

The nurse is a graduate with an associate degree and enrolls in a program to obtain a bachelor's degree in nursing without taking any additional courses is an example of the Institute of Medicine's (IOM) recommendations for transforming the nursing profession.

The Institute of Medicine (IOM) is a nonprofit, nonpartisan body that operates independently of the government and offers objective guidance to the general public and decision-makers.

As part of a larger internal reorganization, the National Academy of Sciences has decided to alter the Institute of Medicine's name to the National Academy of Medicine as of July 1. India joined the IOM as a member nation on June 18, 2008.

Since then, IOM has carried out a number of programs in India in a variety of fields, such as anti-trafficking, labor migration, and migrant aid.

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The Institute of Medicine's (IOM) suggestions for changing the nursing profession include the example of the nurse who has an associate degree and enrols in a programme to earn a bachelor's degree in nursing without completing any extra classes.

The Institute of Medicine (IOM) is a nonprofit, nonpartisan organisation that runs without interference from the executive branch and provides impartial advice to the public and decision-makers.

The National Academy of Sciences has chosen to change the Institute of Medicine's name to the National Academy of Medicine as of July 1 as part of a bigger internal restructure. On June 18, 2008, India became a member country of the IOM.

Since then, IOM has implemented a number of projects in India in a range of sectors, including migrant relief, labour migration, and anti-trafficking.

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which of the following tests included on a urine chemical reagent strip would never be reported out as negative? please select the single best answer urobilinogen bilirubin leukocytes blood nitrite

Answers

Urobilinogen test is included on a urine chemical reagent strip would never be reported out as negative.

Urobilinogen is a colorless byproduct of the breakdown of bilirubin. It is produced in the intestines as a result of bacterial activity on bilirubin. About half of the urobilinogen produced is reabsorbed and transported to the liver via the portal vein, where it enters circulation and is expelled by the kidney.

Hemolysis produces more bilirubin, which leads to a rise in urobilinogen in the stomach. The intrahepatic urobilinogen cycle is impeded in liver illness (such as hepatitis), which raises urobilinogen levels. Urobilinogen is transformed into the yellow pigmented urobilin seen in urine.

In the gut, urobilinogen is immediately converted to brownish stercobilin, which gives the feces their distinctive hue. It may also be reduced to stercobilinogen and then oxidized to stercobilin.

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which of the following improvement efforts is the best example of increasing the efficiency of care?

Answers

Decreasing unnecessary surgical procedures by helping patients reduce their painthrough physical activity is the best example of increasing the efficiency of care.

The cost of providing healthcare can be reduced by increasing efficiency or eliminating waste. Spending the money you save on less readily available goods and/or services is an option. To provide equal treatment for their people in contexts with constrained health budgets, this is especially crucial.

The three interconnected pillars of a high-quality healthcare system are effectiveness, efficiency, and equity. Healthcare costs can be decreased by increasing system efficiency.

Effectiveness contrasts with efficiency in that it refers to the usefulness of a task.

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a home health nurse is providing teaching about infection prevention to a client who has cancer and is receiving chemotherapy. which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Answers

The statement by the client which indicates the understanding of nurses' teaching about infection prevention in cancer is I need to protect the area from sunlight, which means option A is the right answer.

Cancer is the disease in which there is growth of cancerous/ tumor like cells which forms a large group if not detected within time and may also spread to different regions of the body. In this disease, the first step that doctor recommends is to go for chemotherapy and essential medication. In chemotherapy, the radiation of high wavelength are dropped on the affected region of the person to kill the tumorous cells and prevent them from spreading or multiplying. However this procedure also damages the normal living cells and body becomes extremely weak after chemotherapy. So it becomes important that person remain s in safe and hygienic environment because their immune system is very weak to fight against the disease causing microbes. Staying away from sunlight protects the person for any infection.  

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Refer to complete question below:

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has cancer and is receiving external radiation therapy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

A. "I need to protect the area from sunlight."

B. "I'm going to apply a heating pad to the area after each treatment."

C. "I'll massage the area once per day."

D. "I'll wash the markings off after each therapy treatment."

Determine which items of personal protective equipment (PPE) you will likely use in a general chemistry lab. O lab coat, O gloves, O goggles.

Answers

The items of personal protective equipment (PPE) you will likely use in a general chemistry lab is lab coat.

PPE is, in NIOSH's opinion, the final line of defence. The notion that a worker is entirely secured when they are wearing PPE is untrue. PPE can only lessen the chance of contact or lessen the severity of a harm. Whenever the hazards are more than how it is intended, avoid using PPE.

Your everyday clothes is protected in the general chemistry lab by lab coats from dirt and hidden contaminants. Transferring infection from the general chemistry lab to your house can be avoided by leaving your lab coat in the general chemistry lab.

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Identify the 4 basic methods of product testing

Answers

The four fundamental methods of verification are Inspection, Demonstration, Test, and Analysis

What are the four basic methods of product testing?

The four procedures are somewhat hierarchical in nature, as each verifies the need for a product or system with growing rigor. There are four main stages of testing that need to be ended before a program can be cleared for use: unit testing, combination testing, system testing, and acceptance testing

One of the most common software testing systems is black box testing. As the named purpose, it is like treating the software product as a black box. Testers perform testing without arching the overall content of the software. The testing process is a simple input-activity-output paradigm.

So we can conclude that The four basic product testing methods are part Testing,

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FILL IN THE BLANK The time it takes for food to travel through the gastrointestinal tract varies between _____ hours.

Answers

The time it takes for food to travel through the gastrointestinal tract varies between 24 to 72 hours.

Food travels from mouth where it is chewed and broken into simpler substances so that the activity of the enzymes can be improved. The saliva present in the mouth helps in active metabolism of the food. It is then passed on to the stomach where several enzymes are released by the organs such as gall bladder, liver and parts of stomach which act specifically in breaking down food. These enzymes act to reduce proteins, carbohydrates and fats into more simple particles which can be used in cellular respiration to provide energy. It is called as the process of digestion of food. Finally, its assimilation takes place in the intestine and the left over fecal matter is removed out of the body through anus.

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Why do you think it is important for health care managers know how to make proper investment decisions?

Answers

Without determining a carefully thought out plan for how a healthcare practice will stay financially secure in the future, being able to provide patients with care may be difficult long term. This results in less effective care when money is not adequately spend properly.

f leptin serves the same function in humans as it does in mice, which of the following groups of people is least likely to lose weight due to daily administration of leptin?

Answers

People who are already obese or overweight would lose the least amount of weight due to daily administration of leptin. This is because leptin, like other hormones, works in a feedback loop to regulate energy balance in the body.

If someone is already overweight or obese, their body produces more leptin than is necessary to maintain a certain level of energy balance. The extra leptin that is produced is not used, meaning the body does not need additional leptin from an external source. Thus, daily administration of leptin would not be effective in reducing weight in someone who is already overweight or obese.

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the size and scope of the hrpp varies depending on the size and scope of the organization within which it operates. even at a small research facility, the hrpp, with rare exception, includes the irb and which of the following?

Answers

At a large research organization, the HRPP typically includes the IRB and the COI committee and the legal/risk management office.

The Human Research Protection Program provides training and assistance for human subjects research, including Institutional Review Board (IRB) procedures and FDA filings, as well as IRB support. The primary purpose of the Institutional Review Board (IRB) as part of the HRPP is to protect the rights and welfare of human research subjects recruited to engage in research activities undertaken by the University of Michigan.

All human subjects research should be performed in line with three essential ethical principles: respect for humans, beneficence, and fairness. Laws established by the United States Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) to safeguard individuals from dangers in research projects in which any federal agency or department participates.

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Which of the following is NOT a source of your values?
Family
history
school
religious institution

Answers

History, because it is before your time and doesn’t pertain to you now.

in preparation for your course project, the purpose of this assignment is to explore a social justice problem that addresses a specific population or subgroup (for example, access to health care, access to social services, immigration, or veterans' mental health and services). this should be a problem that presents current challenges for social workers providing services and support. you will need to investigate the various forms and mechanisms of oppression and discrimination within this social justice problem and identify policies that are currently enacted to address this problem. ultimately, you will choose one of these policies to analyze as the topic for your federal policy analysis course project.

Answers

A social justice problem like access to health care and mechanisms of oppression and discrimination within this with identification of policies that are currently enacted to address this problem are given below.

The findings offer resounding proof that various forms of discrimination, experienced by a wide variety of vulnerable groups, are linked to unfavourable health outcomes, including a reduction in mental functioning and quality of life as well as the beginning of chronic diseases. Patients who face prejudice in health care settings may have their health problems dismissed by medical professionals or receive varied care depending on their insurance coverage, among other things.

Policies like anti-discrimination laws are essential to the moral foundation of healthcare delivery and vital to safeguarding people's rights. The Equality Act guards against discrimination against persons receiving health care and the carers due to any traits that are protected by the law.

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In which of the following anxiety disorders is the person in a continuous state of excessive, pointless worry and apprehension?

Answers

The anxiety disorders in which the person is in a continuous state of excessive, pointless worry and apprehension is generalized anxiety disorder.

A sensation of worry, dread, and unease is known as anxiety. You can start to perspire, become agitated and anxious, and experience pounding heart. It could be a typical response to stressful situations. You might have anxiety, for instance, when confronted with a challenging challenge at job, while attempting a test, or even before making a crucial decision.

Symptoms of generalised anxiety disorder might vary. They may consist of: persistent anxiety or concern that is excessive compared to the effects of the occurrences in a number of different areas. overanalyzing strategies and answers to account for all potential worst-case scenarios interpreting circumstances and events as dangerous even though they are not.

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Cool-Down Routine
3. List four cool-down activities and stretches you will include in your routine.
How will your cool-down routine differ from your warm-up routine? How will they
be similar? Explain in detail. (10 points)
1.
2.
3.
I

Answers

Answer:

Four cool-down activities and stretches that could be included in a routine are shoulder rolls, neck rolls, light jogging and calf stretching. A cool-down routine will usually differ from a warm-up routine in that it focuses more on cooling the body down, such as through stretching and light exercises, rather than warm-up routines which focus on increasing heart rate and preparing the body for exercise. They will be similar in that they both use stretching and light movements to prepare the body for exercise and to help reduce the risk of injury. Cool-down routines will also help the body to gradually decrease the intensity of exercise, while warm-up routines will help the body increase the intensity of exercise.

Explanation:

our best friend comes to you with a problem: He is not doing well in school because he has too much going on after school. He wants to improve his grades without giving up his after-school activities. What are the three general time-management techniques that you can suggest to him?

Answers

He may make a schedule, put things on hold that they don't need to do, or even take a few pauses.

What is time-management techniques?

To be more effective and efficient with your time, make better and quicker decisions, and do more in less time and with less work, you must adhere to a set of rules and principles called time management strategies.

He might create a schedule, postpone tasks that don't need to be completed, or even take a few breaks. You may relax your mind by taking a break, which lowers stress and boosts productivity.

Thus, these are some time management techniques.

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patient underwent exploration of a penetrating wound of the chest, which involved surgical exploration and enlargement of the wound, debridement, removal of a foreign body, and ligation of subcutaneous tissue

Answers

Patient underwent exploration of a penetrating wound of the chest, which involved surgical exploration and enlargement of the wound, debridement, removal of a foreign body, and ligation of subcutaneous tissue. The code for this is 20101.

The American Medical Association created the Current Procedural Terminology code set as a procedural code set. The CPT Editorial Panel is in charge of its upkeep. The CPT code set represents medical, surgical, and diagnostic services and is intended to transmit consistent information about medical services and procedures to physicians, coders, patients, accreditation organizations, and payers for administrative, financial, and analytical objectives.

CPT 2021 has been in use since October 2021, with new versions being issued each October. It is offered in two editions: regular and professional. The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) has designated CPT as Level 1 of the Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System. CPT's copyright has not entered the public domain, despite the fact that its usage has been legally restricted. Users of the CPT code set must pay AMA licensing costs.

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What trend is occurring among the US population in terms of incidents of osteoporosis, heart disease, and high blood pressure?

Answers

About 10 million Americans have osteoporosis, and another 44 million have low bone density, which puts them at increased risk.

What is osteoporosis?Osteoporosis is a bone disease that results from loss of bone mineral density and bone mass, as well as changes in bone structure and strength. This can reduce bone strength and increase the risk of fractures (fractures).Lifelong calcium deficiency has been implicated in the development of osteoporosis. Low calcium intake reduces bone density, premature bone loss, and increases the risk of fractures. Eating disorder Extreme diets and low body weight weaken bones in both men and women. Bisphosphonates are commonly the first-line treatment for osteoporosis.These include:Alendronate (Fosamax),  weekly tablets. Risedronate (Actonel),  weekly or monthly tablets. Ibandronate (Boniva),  monthly tablet or quarterly intravenous (IV) infusion.

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What risks might Charles’s doctor have discussed with him? Check all that apply.

Answers

His doctor described the dangers of obesity to Charles in an effort to persuade him to make better decisions. elevated risk of developing heart disease, increasing prices for healthcare, and a lower standard of living.

What is the risk of obesity?

Charles has progressively put on weight over the years. His physician informed him that he is currently considered obese.

A condition known as obesity involves having too much body fat. Obesity is more than simply a visual issue.

It is a medical condition that raises the chance of various illnesses and conditions, including heart disease, diabetes, high blood pressure, and some malignancies.

Therefore, options A, B, and E are correct.

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The given question is incomplete, so the most probable complete question is,

Over the years, Charles has steadily gained weight. His doctor informed him that he is now in the obese category. To encourage Charles to make healthier choices, his doctor explained to him the risks associated with obesity.

What risks might Charles's doctor have discussed with him? Check all that apply.

increased chance of heart disease

increased healthcare costs

increased life span

decreased chance of stroke

decreased quality of life

decreased chance of certain cancers

Which of the ff are the most common cause of acute otitis media in children ? A. Strep, pneumonia & H-influenza B. H-influenza & staphaureus C. Strep pneumonia & staph aureus D. H-influenza & pseudomonas argunosa

Answers

A. Strep pneumonia, H-influenza and staph aureus are the most common causes of acute otitis media in children. Hence option A is correct.

What is Strep pneumonia?

AOM is an infection of the middle ear that is characterized by inflammation and fluid accumulation.

Therefore, based on the context of the above, It is a common condition in children and is often caused by a bacterial infection that spreads from the upper respiratory tract to the middle ear. These three bacteria are common pathogens associated with AOM.

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Eating excessive amounts of saturated and trans-fats in the diet increases the risk of _______ which narrows the diameter of the blood vessels.

Answers

Eating excessive amounts of saturated and trans-fats in the diet increases the risk of atherosclerosis which narrows the diameter of the blood vessels.

Plaque is the accumulation of lipids, cholesterol, and other chemicals in and on the artery walls that causes atherosclerosis. Atherosclerosis can constrict the arteries and obstruct blood flow. Additionally, a blood clot may form if the plaque ruptures.

The meat and dairy products from ruminant animals, contain organic, or ruminant, trans fats. They develop spontaneously as a result of these animals' gut microbes breaking down grass. Usually, these make up 2-6% of the fat in dairy products and 3-9% of the fat in cuts of beef and lamb.

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a condition in which a person exhibits rigid behaviors that complicate their socialization with other people is

Answers

Answer:

Autism Spectrum Disorder

Explanation:

A condition in which a person exhibits rigid behaviors that complicate their socialization with other people is known as autism spectrum disorder (ASD).

ASD is a neurodevelopmental disorder that affects communication, social interactions, and behavior. It is characterized by difficulty in social communication and social interaction, as well as restricted and repetitive patterns of behavior, interests, and activities. These behaviors can include difficulty with social interactions and communication, difficulty with flexibility and change, and repetitive behaviors or routines. Individuals with ASD may also have difficulty with nonverbal communication, such as eye contact, facial expressions, and body language, which can make it harder for them to connect with others.

all of the following statements regarding group life insurance issued in florida are correct, except:

Answers

The State of Florida provides qualified employees and their eligible dependents with group term life insurance.

Securian Financial provides life insurance products. Participants in the plan have access to additional benefits and services, including legal assistance, life events support, and milestone support. Through People First, the employee can alter their enrollment information and election preferences.

The most popular kind of group life insurance is term insurance. The most common form of group term life insurance is annual renewable term insurance. Most of the time, your employer will cover the entire cost of the premium. The beneficiaries of a person's life insurance policy receive a death benefit.

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Which method is the most commonly use to identify patients

Answers

Answer:

Acceptable identifiers may be the individual's name, an assigned identification number, telephone number, date of birth or other person-specific identifier." Use of a room number would NOT be considered an example of a unique patient identifier.

Explanation:

An elderly woman who experienced a stroke to her left hemisphere would likely have a/an ____ communication disorder.

Answers

An elderly woman who experienced a stroke to her left hemisphere would likely have an acquired communication disorder.

There are two hemispheres in the brain which affect the vital functions of the body. These hemispheres interact with each other through corpus callosum which are the bundle of nervous cells. If the function of the left hemisphere is affected, it affects the communication of the cells and their language options. Left side of the brain is related to speaking which causes difficulty in speaking, verbal memory, difficulty to understand others speech because of auditory cortex etc. Injury in left hemisphere also affects recognition of words, letters and other sensory stimulus functions.

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The patient care technician has the opportunity to perform urinary catheterization for a patient. What should the patient care technician do first?

Answers

The patient care technician should first check the health care provider's order.

Who is a patient care technician?

Medical personnel that care for patients on a daily basis are called patient care technicians. They help take vital signs, move patients throughout a clinic, and other tasks under the direction of a registered nurse or nursing team.

What is urinary catheterization?

In order to allow urine to drain from the bladder and be collected, a latex, polyurethane, or silicone tube known as a urinary catheter is placed into the bladder through the urethra. Additionally, it can be used to inject liquids for the diagnosis or therapy of bladder problems.

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help pleaseeeee !!!!! it’s due today

Answers

Prevent future events, Use Projectors Instead of Print, Choose an Eco-Friendly Venue and Vendors, Go Plastic Free, Go Paper Free, Serve Organic, Locally Sourced Produce, Encourage Eco-Friendly Transportation to and From Your Event, and Go Plastic Free.

What can we expect to happen in the future?Knowing how likely an event is to happen in the future is known as event prediction. Even further development of some apps may be required in order for them to do more than just anticipate the future course of events; they may even be required to do so.10 Ideas for Sustainability-Oriented Events, Calculate Your Event's Environmental Impact, Use Projectors Instead of Print, Choose an Eco-Friendly Venue and Vendors, Go Plastic Free, Go Paper Free, Serve Organic, Locally Sourced Produce, Encourage Eco-Friendly Transportation to and From Your Event, and Go Plastic Free.Prevent future events,Use Projectors Instead of Print, Choose an Eco-Friendly Venue and Vendors, Go Plastic Free, Go Paper Free, Serve Organic, Locally Sourced Produce, Encourage Eco-Friendly Transportation to and From Your Event, and Go Plastic Free.      

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Carbon monoxide alarms are supposed to be installed lower on the wall because carbon monoxide is heavier than air.

What is carbon monoxide alarms?Carbon monoxide alarms, except for gas cookers, must be installed in any room that contains a fixed combustion appliance. This refers to a fixed apparatus in which any type of fuel is burned to generate heat.CO alarms should be installed on every level of the house, as well as outside sleeping areas. Replace the batteries: Batteries in alarms should be replaced at least once a year, unless the alarms have sealed 10-year batteries. If the smoke alarm is more than ten years old, it should be replaced.The annoying beeping of a carbon monoxide detector is usually caused by a malfunctioning battery. The unit will chirp if the old battery needs to be replaced or if it has slipped out of place. Replace or reinstall the battery, and then reset your device.

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based on the national food survey called what we eat in america, about 75% of the united states population has an eating pattern that is low in which of the following?

Answers

According to the National Food Survey, What We Eat in America, about 75% of the United States population has a diet that is low in fruits, vegetables, whole grains, dairy, and seafood. This means that most people are not getting enough of these essential nutrients from their diet.

Eating habits low in these foods can lead to a higher risk of chronic diseases such as obesity, diabetes and heart disease. Additionally, diets low in these foods are associated with an increased risk of nutrient deficiencies and poor overall health. Eating a diet rich in fruits, vegetables, whole grains, dairy, and seafood is important for overall health and well-being. Eating a variety of these foods can also help reduce the risk of developing chronic diseases.

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W/ro Almaz comes to your department with shock & she has no peripheral pulse. If venous cut down would be an option to resuscitate her. Which of the ff is the most commonly used veins for the cut down ? A. Basaltic vein C. Femoral vein B. Cephalic vein D. Sephaneous vein

Answers

If a venous cut-down were to be utilized to revive Almaz when she presents to your department in shock and without a peripheral pulse, the most popular vein to use is the femoral vein, hence option C is correct.

What is the femoral vein?

The femoral vein is the vein that is most frequently used for a venous cut-down.In venous cut-downs, the cephalic, basilic, and saphenous veins are also utilized, although the femoral vein is frequently chosen first.

The femoral vein is a good option for emergency scenarios like resuscitation because it is situated in the groin area and is quickly accessible.

Therefore, option C is correct.

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which of the following associated conditions places children with down syndrome at greater risk for frequent respiratory infections?

Answers

Due to anatomical diversity, immune system immaturity, and comorbidities, children with Down syndrome (DS) are predisposed to respiratory tract infections (RTIs).

Down syndrome, commonly known as trisomy 21, is a genetic disease caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. Physical development delays, mild to severe intellectual handicap, and distinctive facial traits are typical. A young adult with Down syndrome has an average IQ of 50, which is similar to the mental abilities of an eight- or nine-year-old kid, but this can vary greatly.

One of the most frequent chromosomal abnormalities in humans is Down syndrome. Down syndrome patients almost invariably have physical and intellectual difficulties. Their mental capacities as adults are often comparable to those of an 8- or 9-year-old. They also tend to have a weakened immune system and reach developmental milestones later in life.

The complete question is:

Which of the following associated conditions places children with down syndrome at greater risk for frequent respiratory infections?

1. Anatomical diversity

2. Immune system immaturity

3. Comorbidities

4. Thyroid abnormalities.

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Bluma hates making decisions, especially about things she does not like. Her mom wants her to either mow the lawn or clean her room this weekend. This is an example of ________ conflict.
A) avoidance-avoidance
B) good-evil
C) negative-negative
D) approach-approach

Answers

Answer:

(a)

Explanation:

Avoidance Avoidance

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The Northville School Board has proposed this budget for the upcoming school year:20% for school staffs salaries50% for school maintenance and upkeep10% to refurbish the gymnasium5% to upgrade the computer lab hardware10% for new instruments for the music department5% for new sports equipmentAfter a brief discussion, the school board revised the budget as follows:20% for school staffs salaries50% for school maintenance and upkeep10% to refurbish the gymnasium10% to upgrade the computer lab hardware5% for new instruments for the music department5% for new sports equipmentIn this case, the opportunity cost for was . Meowsis Gizmos Lab: Describe how the new X chromosome data supports your hypothesis. Change your hypothesis to a new mutation if needed Company A has 18 machines that each produce t toy cars per hour. Company B has 15 machines that each produce 75 more toy cars per hour than each of Company As machines. In order for the companies to produce an equal number of toy cars, how many toy cars does each machine at Company A need to produce per hour?Write an equation that can be used to solve the problem.Part BFeedbackIncorrect2 tries left. Please try again.Fill in the blank question.Company As machines each produce toy cars per hour.Company Bs machines each produce toy cars per hour. Which part of the excerpt explains the concept of judicial review? What does adjustment disorder with mixed anxiety and depressed mood mean? The constant of proportioality between the number of children (c) on a field trip and the number of teachers (t) on the trip is 14/3 wo hours after admission, a client reports palpitations, chest discomfort, and light-headedness. the nurse connects the client to a cardiac monitor and notes a weak, thread pulse, and a bp of 90/50. which action should the nurse take? select all that apply. before selecting the open or begin return button, which of the following statements regarding starting a new return in blockworks is incorrect? Which BEST explains Karin's reason for reminding Samantha that she likes Tyria? Ford and GM carry spare parts for their dealers at a third party warehouse in Michigan's Upper Peninsula. Demand for Ford spare parts is 100 units per month, whereas demand for GM parts is 120 per month. Each spare part costs $100 and both companies have a holding cost of 20 percent. Currently, each company uses a separate truck to ship these parts. Each truck has a fixed cost of $500. What is the optimal order size and frequency for Ford and GM? What is the annual ordering and holding cost for each company? A third-party logistics provider has offered to combine shipments for each of the two companies on a single truck. This will increase the cost of each truck to $600. If the two companies agree to the joint shipment, what is the optimal order frequency and size? What is the annual ordering and holding cost for the two companies combined? Should Ford and GM accept the third party's proposal? How should they divide the fixed cost per truck among themselves?